Salesforce Certified Administrator (ADM 201)
SALESFORCE CERTIFIED ADMINISTRATOR (ADM 201) – CERTIFICATION | COMPLETE
EXAM 2026/2027 | QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS | PASS GUARANTEE
1. Which Setup area is used to change a company's default time zone
and locale?
A. User Management Settings
B. Company Information ANSWER
C. Session Settings
D. Fiscal Year Settings
2. What is required before a user can be deactivated in Salesforce?
A. The user's licenses and roles are reassigned as needed, but the
user record itself is never deleted, only deactivated ANSWER
B. The user must have zero open activities
C. The user's email must be changed
D. The user must first be deleted from all reports
undefined. The user must be removed from all public groups first
3. Which feature lets an administrator log in as another user to
troubleshoot an issue?
A. Session Security
B. Login As ANSWER
C. Delegated Administration
D. Field Accessibility
4. What determines the maximum number of custom objects a
Salesforce edition allows?
A. The Salesforce edition and license type ANSWER
B. The number of active users
C. The number of installed managed packages
D. The number of profiles
5. Which object stores metadata about a user's login history?
A. LoginHistory ANSWER
B. SessionHistory
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, Salesforce Certified Administrator (ADM 201)
C. AuthProvider
D. UserLogin
6. What is the purpose of a permission set?
A. To replace the need for a profile
B. To define a user's default record type
C. To restrict field-level security only
D. To grant additional permissions to users without changing their
profile ANSWER
7. Which setting controls whether users can only log in during specified
hours?
A. Session Settings
B. Login IP Ranges
C. Login Hours on the profile ANSWER
D. Password Policies
8. How many roles can exist below the CEO in a standard role
hierarchy?
A. A maximum of 10
B. A maximum of 3
C. A maximum of 25
D. There is no fixed limit; hierarchies can have many levels
ANSWER
9. What must be true for a public group to include a queue?
A. Queues cannot be added to public groups
B. Only profiles can be added to public groups
C. Queues can be added as members of a public group ANSWER
D. Only roles can be added to public groups
10. Which license type allows a user full access to standard CRM
functionality?
A. Force.com App Subscription license
B. Guest User license
C. Chatter Free license
D. Salesforce (full) license ANSWER
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, Salesforce Certified Administrator (ADM 201)
11. Where would an admin bulk update the roles of multiple users at
once?
A. Data Loader or Data Import Wizard against the User object
ANSWER
B. The Object Manager
C. Setup > Company Information
D. Setup > Session Settings
12. What is the effect of freezing a user account?
A. The user is automatically converted to a guest user
B. The user's data is permanently deleted
C. The user's profile is automatically changed
D. The user cannot log in, but the account is preserved and can be
unfrozen later ANSWER
13. Which tool would an admin use to see a history of setup
configuration changes?
A. Setup Audit Trail ANSWER
B. Login History
C. Debug Log
D. Field History Tracking
14. A sales rep needs access to records owned by others in their same
role. What grants this by default?
A. The role hierarchy ANSWER
B. Permission sets only
C. Public groups only
D. Sharing rules only
15. What is the minimum requirement to create a new user record?
A. A mobile phone number
B. A manager assignment
C. A time zone override
D. A unique username in the format of an email address and a
license assignment ANSWER
16. Which feature restricts a delegated administrator to managing only
certain profiles and permission sets?
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, Salesforce Certified Administrator (ADM 201)
A. Delegated Administration ANSWER
B. Field-Level Security
C. Login Access Policies
D. Sharing Rules
17. What happens to a user's records when the user is deactivated?
A. Records are automatically reassigned to the manager
B. Records become publicly visible to everyone
C. Records remain owned by the deactivated user unless manually
reassigned ANSWER
D. Records are automatically deleted
18. Which report type would show login attempts that were denied due
to IP restrictions?
A. Setup Audit Trail
B. Field History report
C. Login History report/list view filtered by status ANSWER
D. Session report
19. What does the 'View All Data' permission grant a profile?
A. Access to delete any record
B. Edit access to all setup pages
C. Ability to modify all field-level security
D. Read access to all records in the org, regardless of sharing
settings ANSWER
20. Which two components together define what a user can see and do
in Salesforce? (choose the pairing most emphasized in ADM 201)
A. Profile and Permission Sets ANSWER
B. Role and Public Group
C. Record Type and Page Layout
D. Sharing Rule and Queue
Security & Access
21. What is the correct order of operations for evaluating record
access?
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SALESFORCE CERTIFIED ADMINISTRATOR (ADM 201) – CERTIFICATION | COMPLETE
EXAM 2026/2027 | QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS | PASS GUARANTEE
1. Which Setup area is used to change a company's default time zone
and locale?
A. User Management Settings
B. Company Information ANSWER
C. Session Settings
D. Fiscal Year Settings
2. What is required before a user can be deactivated in Salesforce?
A. The user's licenses and roles are reassigned as needed, but the
user record itself is never deleted, only deactivated ANSWER
B. The user must have zero open activities
C. The user's email must be changed
D. The user must first be deleted from all reports
undefined. The user must be removed from all public groups first
3. Which feature lets an administrator log in as another user to
troubleshoot an issue?
A. Session Security
B. Login As ANSWER
C. Delegated Administration
D. Field Accessibility
4. What determines the maximum number of custom objects a
Salesforce edition allows?
A. The Salesforce edition and license type ANSWER
B. The number of active users
C. The number of installed managed packages
D. The number of profiles
5. Which object stores metadata about a user's login history?
A. LoginHistory ANSWER
B. SessionHistory
Page 1 of 40
, Salesforce Certified Administrator (ADM 201)
C. AuthProvider
D. UserLogin
6. What is the purpose of a permission set?
A. To replace the need for a profile
B. To define a user's default record type
C. To restrict field-level security only
D. To grant additional permissions to users without changing their
profile ANSWER
7. Which setting controls whether users can only log in during specified
hours?
A. Session Settings
B. Login IP Ranges
C. Login Hours on the profile ANSWER
D. Password Policies
8. How many roles can exist below the CEO in a standard role
hierarchy?
A. A maximum of 10
B. A maximum of 3
C. A maximum of 25
D. There is no fixed limit; hierarchies can have many levels
ANSWER
9. What must be true for a public group to include a queue?
A. Queues cannot be added to public groups
B. Only profiles can be added to public groups
C. Queues can be added as members of a public group ANSWER
D. Only roles can be added to public groups
10. Which license type allows a user full access to standard CRM
functionality?
A. Force.com App Subscription license
B. Guest User license
C. Chatter Free license
D. Salesforce (full) license ANSWER
Page 2 of 40
, Salesforce Certified Administrator (ADM 201)
11. Where would an admin bulk update the roles of multiple users at
once?
A. Data Loader or Data Import Wizard against the User object
ANSWER
B. The Object Manager
C. Setup > Company Information
D. Setup > Session Settings
12. What is the effect of freezing a user account?
A. The user is automatically converted to a guest user
B. The user's data is permanently deleted
C. The user's profile is automatically changed
D. The user cannot log in, but the account is preserved and can be
unfrozen later ANSWER
13. Which tool would an admin use to see a history of setup
configuration changes?
A. Setup Audit Trail ANSWER
B. Login History
C. Debug Log
D. Field History Tracking
14. A sales rep needs access to records owned by others in their same
role. What grants this by default?
A. The role hierarchy ANSWER
B. Permission sets only
C. Public groups only
D. Sharing rules only
15. What is the minimum requirement to create a new user record?
A. A mobile phone number
B. A manager assignment
C. A time zone override
D. A unique username in the format of an email address and a
license assignment ANSWER
16. Which feature restricts a delegated administrator to managing only
certain profiles and permission sets?
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, Salesforce Certified Administrator (ADM 201)
A. Delegated Administration ANSWER
B. Field-Level Security
C. Login Access Policies
D. Sharing Rules
17. What happens to a user's records when the user is deactivated?
A. Records are automatically reassigned to the manager
B. Records become publicly visible to everyone
C. Records remain owned by the deactivated user unless manually
reassigned ANSWER
D. Records are automatically deleted
18. Which report type would show login attempts that were denied due
to IP restrictions?
A. Setup Audit Trail
B. Field History report
C. Login History report/list view filtered by status ANSWER
D. Session report
19. What does the 'View All Data' permission grant a profile?
A. Access to delete any record
B. Edit access to all setup pages
C. Ability to modify all field-level security
D. Read access to all records in the org, regardless of sharing
settings ANSWER
20. Which two components together define what a user can see and do
in Salesforce? (choose the pairing most emphasized in ADM 201)
A. Profile and Permission Sets ANSWER
B. Role and Public Group
C. Record Type and Page Layout
D. Sharing Rule and Queue
Security & Access
21. What is the correct order of operations for evaluating record
access?
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