NSG 500
EXAM 2
Advanced Health Assessment
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Wilkes University
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢160 Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢Expert Rationales included
➢Exam 2 Comprehensive Study Guide
,Table of Contents
NSG 500 EXAM 2 ............................................................................ 2
NSG 500 Exam 2 ........................................................................... 34
NSG 500 Exam 2 Study Guide .................................................... 66
NSG 500 EXAM 2
1. A 72-year-old client presents for a routine physical examination. The nurse
practitioner notes normal age-related changes. Which findings are consistent with
normal aging? (Select All That Apply)
A. Decreased taste sensation
B. Thinning skin with wrinkles
C. Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia)
D. Dry eyes
E. Thicker, coarse hair on eyebrows, nose, and ears
F. Muscle atrophy and gait abnormalities
Correct Answers: A, B, D, E
Rationale: Normal aging findings include sensory deficits (taste, smell, sight, hearing),
wrinkles with thinning skin, dry eyes, and thicker/coarse hair on the face (eyebrows, nose,
ear hair) with thinning on the scalp. Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) and motor deficits
such as muscle atrophy and gait abnormalities are abnormal findings requiring further
evaluation, not normal age-related changes.
2. A 45-year-old client reports a "band-like" pressure sensation around the entire
head that is bilateral and non-throbbing. The nurse practitioner recognizes this as
most consistent with which type of headache?
,A. Migraine
B. Cluster
C. Tension
D. Sinus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tension headaches are characterized by a band-like tension around the head,
bilateral distribution, and pressure or throbbing sensation. Migraines are typically
unilateral with photosensitivity and nausea/vomiting. Cluster headaches present with
intense pain behind one eye with increased lacrimation. Sinus headaches involve pressure
around the frontal sinuses with URI symptoms.
3. A 16-year-old adolescent reports unilateral head pain accompanied by nausea,
vomiting, and sensitivity to light. The client states, "I know what my normal headache
feels like, and this is different." The nurse practitioner recognizes these findings as
most consistent with:
A. Tension headache
B. Cluster headache
C. Migraine
D. Sinus headache
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Migraines are characterized by unilateral pain, photosensitivity,
nausea/vomiting, and typically have onset in adolescence or early adulthood. Clients with
migraines often can distinguish their "normal" headache pattern from other types. The
unilateral nature, photophobia, and N/V differentiate this from tension (bilateral, band-
like) and cluster (periorbital, tearing) headaches.
4. A 50-year-old male presents with severe, stabbing pain behind his right eye,
accompanied by tearing and a runny nose on the same side. The episodes occur daily
for two weeks. The nurse practitioner recognizes this as:
A. Tension headache
B. Migraine
C. Cluster headache
D. Sinus headache
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: Cluster headaches are characterized by intense pain behind one eye, increased
lacrimation of tear ducts, and nasal discharge (runny nose). The unilateral nature,
periorbital location, and autonomic symptoms (tearing, rhinorrhea) are pathognomonic for
cluster headaches. These typically occur in "clusters" or cycles over weeks.
5. A client presents with facial pressure, tenderness in the maxillary region, nasal
congestion, and sore throat. The nurse practitioner recognizes these symptoms as
consistent with:
A. Tension headache
B. Cluster headache
C. Migraine
D. Sinus headache
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sinus headaches present with pressure around the sinuses (frontal), tenderness
in the maxillary region, and URI symptoms including nasal congestion and sore throat. This
differentiates sinus headaches from tension (band-like), cluster (periorbital with tearing),
and migraine (unilateral with photophobia/N/V) headaches.
6. The nurse practitioner is preparing to examine a client's pupils. Which technique
represents the BEST method for this examination?
A. Examine both pupils simultaneously with room lights on
B. Examine in a darkened room, one eye at a time, using a penlight from the outer portion
inward
C. Examine both pupils simultaneously in a brightly lit room
D. Cross the penlight from one eye to the other while examining both eyes together
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best method to examine pupils is in a darkened room, one eye at a time,
using a penlight from the outer portion of one eye and working inward, then repeating on
the other eye from the outer portion inward. There should be no crossing of the light
between eyes. This technique allows accurate assessment of pupillary response, size, and
symmetry without consensual reflex interference.
,7. A client is asked to focus on a distant object, then the nurse practitioner brings a
finger closer to the client's face. The nurse practitioner observes that the pupils
constrict and the eyes converge. This assessment is evaluating:
A. Direct light reflex
B. Consensual light reflex
C. Accommodation
D. Convergence only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Accommodation is tested by having the client focus on a distant object, then
bringing an object closer to the face. Normal findings include pupil constriction as the
object approaches and convergence of the eyes toward each other. This assesses the
function of cranial nerve III (oculomotor) and the near-vision reflex arc.
8. The nurse practitioner is using a Snellen chart to assess a client's vision. The nurse
practitioner understands that the Snellen chart:
A. Measures near vision at 14 inches
B. Assesses distant vision
C. Is made up of 3's, X's, and O's
D. Is held 14 inches from the client's face
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Snellen chart is used to assess far sign (distant vision). The Rosenbaum
chart measures near vision, is made up of 3's, X's, and O's, and is held 14 inches from the
client's face. Understanding the purpose and proper use of each vision assessment tool is
essential for accurate visual acuity testing.
9. The nurse practitioner is preparing to use an ophthalmoscope for a fundoscopic
examination. Which sequence represents the correct technique? (Select All That Apply)
A. Darken the room to dilate pupils
B. Turn the lens dial (diopter) to 0
C. Have the client look at the examiner's shoulder
D. Use the right eye to examine the client's right eye
E. Hold the ophthalmoscope 15 inches from the client's face at a 15-degree angle
F. Place the thumb on the client's eyebrow for stability
Correct Answers: A, B, D, E, F
,Rationale: Correct ophthalmoscope technique includes: darkening the room (dilates
pupils), setting the diopter to 0, having the client look straight ahead/fixate on a distant
object (not at the examiner's shoulder), using the right eye for the client's right eye and left
for left (right/right, left/left), holding the ophthalmoscope 15 inches from the face at a 15-
degree angle, and placing the thumb on the client's eyebrow for stability. The examiner
looks for the red reflex, then moves in to 1-2 inches from the eye.
10. During a fundoscopic examination, the nurse practitioner notes the optic disc is
pinkish-orange with clearly defined edges. The retinal arteries appear lighter and
thinner than the veins. These findings are:
A. Abnormal; suggestive of papilledema
B. Normal findings
C. Abnormal; suggestive of hypertensive retinopathy
D. Abnormal; suggestive of glaucoma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal fundoscopic findings include a pinkish-orange optic disc with clear,
defined edges. Retinal arteries are normally lighter and thinner compared to veins, which
are darker and thicker. The macula is darker than the surrounding area. Abnormal findings
would include AV nicking, cotton wool spots, disc edema, or arterial narrowing
(hypertensive retinopathy).
11. A 6-month-old infant is brought to the clinic. The parents are concerned because
the infant's eyes appear to turn inward. The nurse practitioner recognizes that this
misalignment of the eyes is called:
A. Pseudo-strabismus
B. Strabismus
C. Amblyopia
D. Nystagmus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strabismus is defined as misalignment of the eyes (lazy eyes). Pseudo-
strabismus is a normal finding in Asian and Native American infants and some congenital
presentations that improve with age. Amblyopia is reduced vision in one eye due to disuse,
and nystagmus is involuntary rhythmic eye movement. True strabismus requires referral
for further evaluation and potential intervention.
,12. During an oropharyngeal examination, the nurse practitioner notes a
cobblestone appearance at the back of the throat. This finding is most consistent
with:
A. Bacterial pharyngitis
B. Postnasal drip or allergies
C. Viral pharyngitis
D. Oral candidiasis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cobblestoning at the back of the throat is characteristic of postnasal drip or
allergies. In the eye, cobblestoning is associated with conjunctivitis. This finding results
from lymphoid hyperplasia in response to chronic irritation from postnasal drainage,
differentiating it from infectious causes of pharyngitis.
13. The nurse practitioner is performing a hearing assessment using the Weber test.
After striking the tuning fork, it is placed on the midline of the client's head. The
client reports hearing the sound equally in both ears. This finding indicates:
A. Unilateral conductive hearing loss
B. Sensorineural hearing loss in one ear
C. Normal hearing or equal bilateral hearing loss
D. Central auditory processing disorder
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nonlateralization (equal sound in both ears) on the Weber test is a normal
finding. The Weber test assesses for unilateral conductive hearing loss or sensorineural
hearing loss. In conductive hearing loss, sound is louder in the affected ear (bone
conduction enhanced). In sensorineural hearing loss, sound is louder in the unaffected ear
(affected ear has impaired perception). Equal hearing in both ears indicates normal hearing
or symmetric bilateral hearing loss.
14. During a Rinne test, the nurse practitioner places a vibrating tuning fork on the
client's mastoid process. When the client no longer hears the sound, the tuning fork
is moved in front of the ear. The client continues to hear the sound. This indicates:
A. Conductive hearing loss
B. Sensorineural hearing loss
,C. Normal hearing (air conduction > bone conduction)
D. Mixed hearing loss
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Rinne test compares bone conduction (BC) to air conduction (AC). Normal
finding is air conduction greater than bone conduction (AC > BC), meaning the client hears
the sound longer through air than through bone. In conductive hearing loss, bone
conduction exceeds air conduction (BC > AC). The Rinne test specifically assesses for
sensorineural hearing loss patterns.
15. During an oropharyngeal examination, the nurse practitioner grades the tonsils
as 3+. This finding indicates:
A. Tonsils are visible but normal
B. Tonsils are halfway between pillars and uvula
C. Tonsils are touching the uvula with >75% of oropharynx covered
D. Tonsils are touching one another
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tonsil grading: 0 = tonsils removed; 1+ = tonsils visible (normal); 2+ = halfway
between pillars and uvula; 3+ = touching the uvula with >75% of oropharynx covered by
tonsils; 4+ = touching one another (airway obstruction, cannot swallow own secretions,
possible uvula deviation). A 3+ grading indicates significant tonsillar enlargement requiring
monitoring for airway compromise.
16. A client presents with ear pain, bloody and yellow discharge, tinnitus, and
hearing loss. The nurse practitioner recognizes these findings as most consistent
with:
A. Otitis externa
B. Otitis media
C. Tympanic membrane rupture
D. Cerumen impaction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tympanic membrane (TM) rupture presents with ear pain, bloody or yellow
discharge (otorrhea), tinnitus, and hearing loss. Otitis externa typically presents with canal
pain and swelling without the specific bloody discharge pattern. Otitis media may precede
, TM rupture but does not include the bloody discharge unless perforation has occurred.
Cerumen impaction causes conductive hearing loss without pain or discharge.
17. The nurse practitioner auscultates a high-pitched whistling sound during
inspiration in a 3-year-old child. This sound is described as:
A. Wheezing
B. Stridor
C. Rhonchi
D. Crackles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched whistling sound indicating upper airway obstruction. It
is typically heard during inspiration. Wheezing is a musical sound usually heard during
expiration in lower airway obstruction (asthma). Rhonchi are low-pitched snoring sounds
from secretions in large airways. Crackles are discontinuous popping sounds from fluid in
alveoli. Stridor requires immediate evaluation for potential airway compromise.
18. The nurse practitioner is examining the ears of a 2-year-old child. The correct
technique for positioning the pinna is:
A. Pull up and back
B. Pull down and back
C. Pull straight out
D. Pull up and forward
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For children under 3 years old, the ear canal is positioned differently due to
cartilage development. The correct technique is to pull down and back to straighten the
canal. For children over 3 years and adults, pull up and back. This anatomical difference is
crucial for proper visualization of the tympanic membrane and avoidance of trauma during
examination.
19. A 68-year-old client with a history of diabetes, smoking, and hypertension
presents for a routine eye examination. The nurse practitioner recognizes these as
risk factors for which condition?
EXAM 2
Advanced Health Assessment
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Wilkes University
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢160 Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢Expert Rationales included
➢Exam 2 Comprehensive Study Guide
,Table of Contents
NSG 500 EXAM 2 ............................................................................ 2
NSG 500 Exam 2 ........................................................................... 34
NSG 500 Exam 2 Study Guide .................................................... 66
NSG 500 EXAM 2
1. A 72-year-old client presents for a routine physical examination. The nurse
practitioner notes normal age-related changes. Which findings are consistent with
normal aging? (Select All That Apply)
A. Decreased taste sensation
B. Thinning skin with wrinkles
C. Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia)
D. Dry eyes
E. Thicker, coarse hair on eyebrows, nose, and ears
F. Muscle atrophy and gait abnormalities
Correct Answers: A, B, D, E
Rationale: Normal aging findings include sensory deficits (taste, smell, sight, hearing),
wrinkles with thinning skin, dry eyes, and thicker/coarse hair on the face (eyebrows, nose,
ear hair) with thinning on the scalp. Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) and motor deficits
such as muscle atrophy and gait abnormalities are abnormal findings requiring further
evaluation, not normal age-related changes.
2. A 45-year-old client reports a "band-like" pressure sensation around the entire
head that is bilateral and non-throbbing. The nurse practitioner recognizes this as
most consistent with which type of headache?
,A. Migraine
B. Cluster
C. Tension
D. Sinus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tension headaches are characterized by a band-like tension around the head,
bilateral distribution, and pressure or throbbing sensation. Migraines are typically
unilateral with photosensitivity and nausea/vomiting. Cluster headaches present with
intense pain behind one eye with increased lacrimation. Sinus headaches involve pressure
around the frontal sinuses with URI symptoms.
3. A 16-year-old adolescent reports unilateral head pain accompanied by nausea,
vomiting, and sensitivity to light. The client states, "I know what my normal headache
feels like, and this is different." The nurse practitioner recognizes these findings as
most consistent with:
A. Tension headache
B. Cluster headache
C. Migraine
D. Sinus headache
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Migraines are characterized by unilateral pain, photosensitivity,
nausea/vomiting, and typically have onset in adolescence or early adulthood. Clients with
migraines often can distinguish their "normal" headache pattern from other types. The
unilateral nature, photophobia, and N/V differentiate this from tension (bilateral, band-
like) and cluster (periorbital, tearing) headaches.
4. A 50-year-old male presents with severe, stabbing pain behind his right eye,
accompanied by tearing and a runny nose on the same side. The episodes occur daily
for two weeks. The nurse practitioner recognizes this as:
A. Tension headache
B. Migraine
C. Cluster headache
D. Sinus headache
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: Cluster headaches are characterized by intense pain behind one eye, increased
lacrimation of tear ducts, and nasal discharge (runny nose). The unilateral nature,
periorbital location, and autonomic symptoms (tearing, rhinorrhea) are pathognomonic for
cluster headaches. These typically occur in "clusters" or cycles over weeks.
5. A client presents with facial pressure, tenderness in the maxillary region, nasal
congestion, and sore throat. The nurse practitioner recognizes these symptoms as
consistent with:
A. Tension headache
B. Cluster headache
C. Migraine
D. Sinus headache
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sinus headaches present with pressure around the sinuses (frontal), tenderness
in the maxillary region, and URI symptoms including nasal congestion and sore throat. This
differentiates sinus headaches from tension (band-like), cluster (periorbital with tearing),
and migraine (unilateral with photophobia/N/V) headaches.
6. The nurse practitioner is preparing to examine a client's pupils. Which technique
represents the BEST method for this examination?
A. Examine both pupils simultaneously with room lights on
B. Examine in a darkened room, one eye at a time, using a penlight from the outer portion
inward
C. Examine both pupils simultaneously in a brightly lit room
D. Cross the penlight from one eye to the other while examining both eyes together
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best method to examine pupils is in a darkened room, one eye at a time,
using a penlight from the outer portion of one eye and working inward, then repeating on
the other eye from the outer portion inward. There should be no crossing of the light
between eyes. This technique allows accurate assessment of pupillary response, size, and
symmetry without consensual reflex interference.
,7. A client is asked to focus on a distant object, then the nurse practitioner brings a
finger closer to the client's face. The nurse practitioner observes that the pupils
constrict and the eyes converge. This assessment is evaluating:
A. Direct light reflex
B. Consensual light reflex
C. Accommodation
D. Convergence only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Accommodation is tested by having the client focus on a distant object, then
bringing an object closer to the face. Normal findings include pupil constriction as the
object approaches and convergence of the eyes toward each other. This assesses the
function of cranial nerve III (oculomotor) and the near-vision reflex arc.
8. The nurse practitioner is using a Snellen chart to assess a client's vision. The nurse
practitioner understands that the Snellen chart:
A. Measures near vision at 14 inches
B. Assesses distant vision
C. Is made up of 3's, X's, and O's
D. Is held 14 inches from the client's face
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Snellen chart is used to assess far sign (distant vision). The Rosenbaum
chart measures near vision, is made up of 3's, X's, and O's, and is held 14 inches from the
client's face. Understanding the purpose and proper use of each vision assessment tool is
essential for accurate visual acuity testing.
9. The nurse practitioner is preparing to use an ophthalmoscope for a fundoscopic
examination. Which sequence represents the correct technique? (Select All That Apply)
A. Darken the room to dilate pupils
B. Turn the lens dial (diopter) to 0
C. Have the client look at the examiner's shoulder
D. Use the right eye to examine the client's right eye
E. Hold the ophthalmoscope 15 inches from the client's face at a 15-degree angle
F. Place the thumb on the client's eyebrow for stability
Correct Answers: A, B, D, E, F
,Rationale: Correct ophthalmoscope technique includes: darkening the room (dilates
pupils), setting the diopter to 0, having the client look straight ahead/fixate on a distant
object (not at the examiner's shoulder), using the right eye for the client's right eye and left
for left (right/right, left/left), holding the ophthalmoscope 15 inches from the face at a 15-
degree angle, and placing the thumb on the client's eyebrow for stability. The examiner
looks for the red reflex, then moves in to 1-2 inches from the eye.
10. During a fundoscopic examination, the nurse practitioner notes the optic disc is
pinkish-orange with clearly defined edges. The retinal arteries appear lighter and
thinner than the veins. These findings are:
A. Abnormal; suggestive of papilledema
B. Normal findings
C. Abnormal; suggestive of hypertensive retinopathy
D. Abnormal; suggestive of glaucoma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal fundoscopic findings include a pinkish-orange optic disc with clear,
defined edges. Retinal arteries are normally lighter and thinner compared to veins, which
are darker and thicker. The macula is darker than the surrounding area. Abnormal findings
would include AV nicking, cotton wool spots, disc edema, or arterial narrowing
(hypertensive retinopathy).
11. A 6-month-old infant is brought to the clinic. The parents are concerned because
the infant's eyes appear to turn inward. The nurse practitioner recognizes that this
misalignment of the eyes is called:
A. Pseudo-strabismus
B. Strabismus
C. Amblyopia
D. Nystagmus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strabismus is defined as misalignment of the eyes (lazy eyes). Pseudo-
strabismus is a normal finding in Asian and Native American infants and some congenital
presentations that improve with age. Amblyopia is reduced vision in one eye due to disuse,
and nystagmus is involuntary rhythmic eye movement. True strabismus requires referral
for further evaluation and potential intervention.
,12. During an oropharyngeal examination, the nurse practitioner notes a
cobblestone appearance at the back of the throat. This finding is most consistent
with:
A. Bacterial pharyngitis
B. Postnasal drip or allergies
C. Viral pharyngitis
D. Oral candidiasis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cobblestoning at the back of the throat is characteristic of postnasal drip or
allergies. In the eye, cobblestoning is associated with conjunctivitis. This finding results
from lymphoid hyperplasia in response to chronic irritation from postnasal drainage,
differentiating it from infectious causes of pharyngitis.
13. The nurse practitioner is performing a hearing assessment using the Weber test.
After striking the tuning fork, it is placed on the midline of the client's head. The
client reports hearing the sound equally in both ears. This finding indicates:
A. Unilateral conductive hearing loss
B. Sensorineural hearing loss in one ear
C. Normal hearing or equal bilateral hearing loss
D. Central auditory processing disorder
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nonlateralization (equal sound in both ears) on the Weber test is a normal
finding. The Weber test assesses for unilateral conductive hearing loss or sensorineural
hearing loss. In conductive hearing loss, sound is louder in the affected ear (bone
conduction enhanced). In sensorineural hearing loss, sound is louder in the unaffected ear
(affected ear has impaired perception). Equal hearing in both ears indicates normal hearing
or symmetric bilateral hearing loss.
14. During a Rinne test, the nurse practitioner places a vibrating tuning fork on the
client's mastoid process. When the client no longer hears the sound, the tuning fork
is moved in front of the ear. The client continues to hear the sound. This indicates:
A. Conductive hearing loss
B. Sensorineural hearing loss
,C. Normal hearing (air conduction > bone conduction)
D. Mixed hearing loss
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Rinne test compares bone conduction (BC) to air conduction (AC). Normal
finding is air conduction greater than bone conduction (AC > BC), meaning the client hears
the sound longer through air than through bone. In conductive hearing loss, bone
conduction exceeds air conduction (BC > AC). The Rinne test specifically assesses for
sensorineural hearing loss patterns.
15. During an oropharyngeal examination, the nurse practitioner grades the tonsils
as 3+. This finding indicates:
A. Tonsils are visible but normal
B. Tonsils are halfway between pillars and uvula
C. Tonsils are touching the uvula with >75% of oropharynx covered
D. Tonsils are touching one another
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tonsil grading: 0 = tonsils removed; 1+ = tonsils visible (normal); 2+ = halfway
between pillars and uvula; 3+ = touching the uvula with >75% of oropharynx covered by
tonsils; 4+ = touching one another (airway obstruction, cannot swallow own secretions,
possible uvula deviation). A 3+ grading indicates significant tonsillar enlargement requiring
monitoring for airway compromise.
16. A client presents with ear pain, bloody and yellow discharge, tinnitus, and
hearing loss. The nurse practitioner recognizes these findings as most consistent
with:
A. Otitis externa
B. Otitis media
C. Tympanic membrane rupture
D. Cerumen impaction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tympanic membrane (TM) rupture presents with ear pain, bloody or yellow
discharge (otorrhea), tinnitus, and hearing loss. Otitis externa typically presents with canal
pain and swelling without the specific bloody discharge pattern. Otitis media may precede
, TM rupture but does not include the bloody discharge unless perforation has occurred.
Cerumen impaction causes conductive hearing loss without pain or discharge.
17. The nurse practitioner auscultates a high-pitched whistling sound during
inspiration in a 3-year-old child. This sound is described as:
A. Wheezing
B. Stridor
C. Rhonchi
D. Crackles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched whistling sound indicating upper airway obstruction. It
is typically heard during inspiration. Wheezing is a musical sound usually heard during
expiration in lower airway obstruction (asthma). Rhonchi are low-pitched snoring sounds
from secretions in large airways. Crackles are discontinuous popping sounds from fluid in
alveoli. Stridor requires immediate evaluation for potential airway compromise.
18. The nurse practitioner is examining the ears of a 2-year-old child. The correct
technique for positioning the pinna is:
A. Pull up and back
B. Pull down and back
C. Pull straight out
D. Pull up and forward
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For children under 3 years old, the ear canal is positioned differently due to
cartilage development. The correct technique is to pull down and back to straighten the
canal. For children over 3 years and adults, pull up and back. This anatomical difference is
crucial for proper visualization of the tympanic membrane and avoidance of trauma during
examination.
19. A 68-year-old client with a history of diabetes, smoking, and hypertension
presents for a routine eye examination. The nurse practitioner recognizes these as
risk factors for which condition?
