BIO 322 Exam 4 V2 | BIO 322 Applied
Pathophysiology | Actual Q&A with
Rationale (BIO322 Exam 4) | Grand Canyon
University
1. A patient presents with massive proteinuria (>3.5 g/day), hypoalbuminemia, and
generalized edema. Which condition is most likely responsible for these findings?
A. Nephrotic Syndrome
B. Nephritic Syndrome
C. Acute Cystitis
D. Pre-renal Azotemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by the loss of plasma proteins,
particularly albumin, through the glomerular filtration barrier. This loss leads to
hypoalbuminemia, which reduces plasma oncotic pressure and causes systemic edema. The
hallmark of this condition is heavy proteinuria exceeding 3.5 grams in a 24-hour period.
2. Which of the following factors are known risk factors for the development of pelvic
inflammatory disease (PID)? Select all that apply.
A. Multiple sexual partners
B. Previous history of sexually transmitted infections
,C. Regular use of oral contraceptives
D. Frequent douching
E. Age between 15 and 25 years
F. Post-menopausal status
Correct Answer: A, B, D, E
Rationale: Pelvic inflammatory disease is an infection of the upper female reproductive
tract often caused by N. gonorrhoeae or C. trachomatis. Risk factors include young age,
multiple partners, and behaviors like douching which can disrupt the vaginal flora. Oral
contraceptives actually provide a protective effect by thickening cervical mucus, and PID is
less common in post-menopausal women unless other specific risk factors are present.
3. A 65-year-old male reports difficulty initiating a urinary stream, a weak flow, and the
sensation of incomplete bladder emptying. Digital rectal exam reveals a smooth, firm, and
non-tender enlarged prostate. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Prostate Cancer
B. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
C. Acute Prostatitis
D. Urethral Stricture
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia involves the non-malignant growth of the
prostate gland which compresses the urethra. The smooth and firm texture on examination
distinguishes it from the hard or nodular feel associated with malignancy. These
obstructive symptoms are characteristic of the periurethral growth pattern seen in BPH.
4. In the context of Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD), why do patients frequently develop
secondary hyperparathyroidism?
A. Hypocalcemia caused by phosphate retention and decreased Vitamin D activation
B. Hypophosphatemia resulting from decreased filtration
C. Excessive excretion of Vitamin D by the damaged kidneys
D. Direct stimulation of the parathyroid gland by urea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: As GFR declines, kidneys fail to excrete phosphate and produce calcitriol (active
Vitamin D). High phosphate levels bind to calcium, and low calcitriol levels reduce calcium
absorption from the gut, leading to hypocalcemia. This persistent low calcium triggers the
parathyroid glands to overproduce PTH to compensate, resulting in secondary
hyperparathyroidism.
5. A patient experiences sudden onset of sharp, colicky flank pain that radiates to the groin,
accompanied by nausea. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Acute Glomerulonephritis
B. Renal Cell Carcinoma
Pathophysiology | Actual Q&A with
Rationale (BIO322 Exam 4) | Grand Canyon
University
1. A patient presents with massive proteinuria (>3.5 g/day), hypoalbuminemia, and
generalized edema. Which condition is most likely responsible for these findings?
A. Nephrotic Syndrome
B. Nephritic Syndrome
C. Acute Cystitis
D. Pre-renal Azotemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by the loss of plasma proteins,
particularly albumin, through the glomerular filtration barrier. This loss leads to
hypoalbuminemia, which reduces plasma oncotic pressure and causes systemic edema. The
hallmark of this condition is heavy proteinuria exceeding 3.5 grams in a 24-hour period.
2. Which of the following factors are known risk factors for the development of pelvic
inflammatory disease (PID)? Select all that apply.
A. Multiple sexual partners
B. Previous history of sexually transmitted infections
,C. Regular use of oral contraceptives
D. Frequent douching
E. Age between 15 and 25 years
F. Post-menopausal status
Correct Answer: A, B, D, E
Rationale: Pelvic inflammatory disease is an infection of the upper female reproductive
tract often caused by N. gonorrhoeae or C. trachomatis. Risk factors include young age,
multiple partners, and behaviors like douching which can disrupt the vaginal flora. Oral
contraceptives actually provide a protective effect by thickening cervical mucus, and PID is
less common in post-menopausal women unless other specific risk factors are present.
3. A 65-year-old male reports difficulty initiating a urinary stream, a weak flow, and the
sensation of incomplete bladder emptying. Digital rectal exam reveals a smooth, firm, and
non-tender enlarged prostate. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Prostate Cancer
B. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
C. Acute Prostatitis
D. Urethral Stricture
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia involves the non-malignant growth of the
prostate gland which compresses the urethra. The smooth and firm texture on examination
distinguishes it from the hard or nodular feel associated with malignancy. These
obstructive symptoms are characteristic of the periurethral growth pattern seen in BPH.
4. In the context of Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD), why do patients frequently develop
secondary hyperparathyroidism?
A. Hypocalcemia caused by phosphate retention and decreased Vitamin D activation
B. Hypophosphatemia resulting from decreased filtration
C. Excessive excretion of Vitamin D by the damaged kidneys
D. Direct stimulation of the parathyroid gland by urea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: As GFR declines, kidneys fail to excrete phosphate and produce calcitriol (active
Vitamin D). High phosphate levels bind to calcium, and low calcitriol levels reduce calcium
absorption from the gut, leading to hypocalcemia. This persistent low calcium triggers the
parathyroid glands to overproduce PTH to compensate, resulting in secondary
hyperparathyroidism.
5. A patient experiences sudden onset of sharp, colicky flank pain that radiates to the groin,
accompanied by nausea. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Acute Glomerulonephritis
B. Renal Cell Carcinoma
