Exam 3 (v1): NSG 3850 / NSG3850 (2026 / 2027 Edition) Pathophysiology for Nurses II | 100% Correct Questions & Answers - Galen

Exam 3 (v1): NSG 3850 / NSG3850 (2026 / 2027 Edition) Pathophysiology for Nurses II | 100% Correct Questions & Answers - Galen Question: Nephrotic syndrome does not usually cause a. hyperlipidemia b. proteinuria c. hematuria d. generalized edema C A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically experience a. fever b. oliguria c. edema d. hypertension A The organism most commonly associated with acute pyelonephritis is a. streptococcus b. Escherichia coli c. Klebsiella d. Enterobacter B It is true that polycystic kidney disease is a. always rapidly fatal b. caused by a streptococcal infection c. associated with supernumerary kidney d. genetically transmitted D The pathophysiologic basis of acute glomerulonephritis is a. renal ischemia b. bacterial invasion of the glomerulus c. an anaphylactic reaction d. an immune complex reaction D Signs consistent with a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis include a. anuria b. proteinuria c. red blood cell casts in urine d. foul-smelling urine B A patient with gouty arthritis develops renal calculi. The composition of these calculi is most likely to be a. potassium oxalate b. struvite c. cysteine d. uric acid crystals D The most common type of renal stone is a. uric acid b. calcium c. struvite d. cesteine B Calcium oxalate stone formation is facilitated by a. hypercalciuria b. hypoparathyroidism c. low urine pH d. protein intake A The most common s/s of renal calculi is a. pain b. vomiting c. hematuria d. orliguria A The most common direct cause of acute pyelonephritis is a. urine obstruction b. systemic bacteremia c. urethral catheterization d. infection by E. coli D The major underlying factor leading to the edema associated with glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome is a. hematuria c. bacteriuria c. glycosuria d. proteinuria D A major modifiable risk factor for nephrolithiasis is a. positive family Hx b. dehydration c. smoking d. drinking alcohol B In addition to E. coli, a risk factor for development of pyelonephritis is a. urinary retention and reflux b. nephrotic syndrom c. respiratory disease d. glomerulonephritis A Nephrotic syndrome involves loss of large amounts of ___ in the urine. a. blood b. sodium c. glucose d. protein D Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because a. hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipids b. lipids are not excreted in the urine c. body fats are catabolized d. muscles stop burning triglyceride for energy A The main clinical manifestation fo a kidney stone obstructing the ureter is a. oliguria b. renal colic c. urge incontinence d. an abdominal mass B Glomerular disorders include a. pyelonephritis b. obstructive uropathy c. interstitial cystitis d. nephrotic syndrome D The major cause of glomerulonephritis is a. infection of the glomerular capsule secondary to a urinary tract infection b. immune system damage to the glomeruli c. hydronephrosis resulting from kidney stones d. streptococcus infection that migrated from the bloodstream to the glomerulus B The infection frequently associated with development of post infectious acute glomerulonephritis is a. pneumonia b. throat infection c. endocarditis d. UTI B A common component of renal calculi is a. calcium b. cholesterol c. creatinine d. urobilirubin A Which condition is caused by a genetic defect? a. acute pyelonephritis b. hydroureter c. incontinence d. polycystic kidney disease D The condition characterized by oliguria and hematuria is a. acute glomerulonephritis b. polycystic kidney disease c. cystitis d. renal insufficiency A A person who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is also experiencing hypoalbuminemia. This happens because a. hepatocyte failure decreases albumin synthesis b. albumin is excreted in the urine c. albumin leaks into the interstitial spaces d. malnutrition is part of nephrotic syndrome B The individual at highest risk of pyelonephritis who required monitoring for signs of its occurrence is the a. woman who is parapelgic b. woman who is pregnant c. man who has glomerulonephritis d. man who has chronic UTIs D When a pt. experiencing nephrotic syndrome asks, "What causes my urine to be so full of protein," the nurse's response is based on the knowledge that a. his glomeruli has been damaged by his own immune system b. the glomerular membrane has increased permeability c. his liver is extremely active in synthesizing protein d. his renal tubules are full of cellular debris B A patient who reported a very painful sore throat 3 weeks ago is now diagnosed with acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. When asked, "Why is my urine the color of coffee?", the nurse responds a. "Normally, red blood cells that enter the urine are taken back into the blood, but in glomerulonephritis, the kidney disease you have, they stay in the urine and make it coffee colored." b. "Your immune system was activated by your sore throat and has caused some damage in your kidneys that allows red blood cells to leak into the fluid that becomes urine and make it coffee colored." c. "The bacteria that caused your sore throat have traveled to your kidneys and are causing a little damage there that allows some red blood cells to leak into your urine and make it orange colored." d. "When parts of your kidneys stopped working, your blood kept flowing and broke some of your little blood vessels, so red blood cells are flowing into your urine and making it coffee colored. B Renal stone formation is affected by (select all that apply) a. urine concentration b. urine pH c. metabolic/congenital conditions d. dietary intake e. potassium level A, B, C, D The manifestations of acute pyelonephritis (select all that apply) a. are mild and insidious b. can result in dehydration c. often include symptoms of lower urinary that infection d. include fever, chills, and CVA tenderness e. may include urosepsis B, C, D, E Urinary retention with consistent or intermittent dribbling of urine is called a. mixed incontinence b. enuresis c. stress incontinence d. overflow incontinence D The direct cause of stress incontinence is a. the effect of aging b. pelvic muscle weakness c. neurologic conditions d. detrusor muscle overactivity B A person is unaware that his bladder is full of urine, but complains that he is leaking urine almost constantly. The most accurate term for this type of incontinence is a. overflow b. stress c. urge d. mixed A Pelvic floor muscle training is appropriate for a. overflow incontinence b. reflux prevention c. urge incontinence d. functional incontinence C The urinalysis finding most indicative of cystitis includes the presence of a. WBCs and RBCs b. nitrites c. casts d. bacteria B The patient reports persistent pelvic pain and urinary frequency and urgency. She says the pain improves when she empties her bladder. She does not have a fever and her repeated urinalyses over the past months have been normal, although she has a history of frequent bladder infections. She also has a history of fibromyalgia and hypothyroidism. Based on her history and complaints, her symptoms are characteristic of a. neuroses b. ureteral stone c. neurogenic bladder d. interstitial cystitis D The disorder characterized by a neurologic lesion that affects bladder control is a. neurogenic bladder b. detrusor inactivity c. bladder prolapse d. cystitis A The different between stress incontinence and urge incontinence is that stress incontinence a. occurs in women, whereas urge incontinence occurs in both men and women b. occurs during sleep, whereas urge incontinence occurs during the waking hours c. is caused by a pelvic floor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a problem with the detrusor muscle d. is caused by a detrusor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a neurologic problem C A patient who has difficulty walking without assistance is incontinent of urine when help doesn't get to her quickly enough. The term for this type of incontinence is a. extraurethral b. functional c. urge d. stress B Urge incontinence is often because of (select all that apply) a. aging b. bladder infections c. obesity d. prostate enlargement e. diuretics A, B, D, E Characteristics of cystitis include (select all that apply) a. more common in women b. less complicated in men c. associated with cauterization of the bladder d. fostered by stasis of urine e. usually resolve without treatment A, C, D Cystitis sx include (select all that apply) a. CVA tenderness b. suprapubic pain c. dysuria d. fever B, C, D Which sx suggests the presence of a hiatal hernia? a. nausea b. heartburn c. diarrhea d. abdominal cramps B Proton pump inhibitors may be used in the management of peptic ulcer disease to a. increase gastric motility b. inhibit secretion of pepsinogen c. neutralize gastric acid d. decrease hydrochloric (HC1) secretion D Epigastric pain that is relieved by food is suggestive of a. pancreatitis b. cardiac angina c. gastric ulcer d. dysphagia C The most common cause of mechanical bowel obstruction is a. volvulus b. intussusception c. adhesions d. fecal impaction C Acute RLQ pain associated with rebound tenderness and systemic signs of inflammation are indicative of a. appendicits b. peritonitis c. cholecystitis d. gastritis A A silent abdomen 3 hours after bowel surgery most likely indicates a. peritonitis b. mechanical bowel obstruction c. perforated bowel d. functional bowel obstruction D Ulcerative colitis is commonly associated with a. bloody diarrhea b. malabsorption of nutrients c. fistula formation between loops of bowel d. inflammation and scarring of the submucosal layer of the bowel A A pt who should be routinely evaluated for peptic ulcer disease is one who is a. taking 6-8 tablets of acetaminophen per day b. being treated with high-dose oral glucocorticoids c. experiencing chronic diarrhea d. routinely drinking alcoholic beverages B Celiac sprue is a malabsorption disorder associated with a. inflammatory reaction to gluten-containing foods b. megacolon at regions of autonomic denervation c. ulceration of the distal colon and rectum d. deficient production of pancreatic enzymes A What clinical finding would suggest an esophageal cause of a pt.'s report of dysphagia? a. nasal regurgitation b. airway obstruction with swallowing c. chest pain during meals d. coughing when swallowing C What dinging would rule out a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome in a pt with chronic diarrhea? a. negative stool leukocytes b. intermittent constipation c. abdominal pain and distention d. bloody stools D A pt reaching chemotherapy may be at greater risk for development of a. gastroesophageal reflux b. stomatitis c. esophageal varices d. mallory-weise syndrome B A pt with chronic gastritis would likely be tested for a. Helicobacter pylori b. occult blood c. lymphocytes d. herpes simplex A Rupture of esophageal varies is a complication of cirrhosis with portal hypertension and carries a high ___ rate a. cure b. morbidity c. insurance d. mortality D Dumping syndrome is commonly seen after ____ procedures a. appendectomy b. intestinal biopsy c. colonoscopy d. gastric bypass D Adult polycystic kidney disease manifests with decreasing renal function and hypertension in adulthood In chronic glomerulonephritis progression to end-stage renal disease is common Movement of renal calculi into the ureter produces renal colic Risk factors for acute pyelonephritis include all of the following except? A) diabetes mellitus B) kidney trauma C) pregnancy D) elderly age B) Kidney trauma the finding of white blood cell casts in the urine is indicative of pyelonephritis The finding of red blood cell casts in the urine is indicative of Glomerulonephritis polycystic kidney disease (PKD) Genetic disorder in which fluid-filled cysts develop in the kidneys. Prerenal kidney injury, regardless of the specific cause, has a single common etiologic factor, which is decreased kidney perfusion All of the following could produce prerenal kidney in jury except pyelonephritis Kidney injury produces all of the following characteristic alterations in laboratory values except? A) increased creatinine levels B) increased potassium levels C) increased phosphorus levels D) increased calcium levels D) increased calcium levels Which of the following patients is at highest risk for developing prerenal acute kidney injury? A young man with significant post surgical hemorrhage The cause of death of most patients with chronic kidney disease is cardiovascular disease Cystitis is: an inflammation of the bladder lining Risk factors for the development of cystitis include all of the following except? A) female gender B) acidic urine C) urinary stasis B) acidic urine The most common cause of cystitis is Escherichia coli (E.coli) The diarrhea seen with inflammatory bowel disease is primarily an example of exudative diarrhea A common cause of stomatitis seen in immunosuppressed patients is Candida albicans Risk factors for gastrosophageal reflux include a hiatal hernia Common manifestations of PUD include Burning epigastric pain The primary life-threatening complication of appendicitis is peritonitis A patient with PUD should be encouraged to avoid Aspirin; Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) A major predisposing factor to the development of pseudomembranous enterocolitis is antibiotic therapy Which of the following is a true statement regarding diverticular disease? if diverticuli become inflamed, intestinal obstruction may result All of the following could result in a mechanical bowel obstruction except A) volvulus B) intussusception C) adhesions D) narcotic analgesic administration D) narcotic analgesic administration The manifestations of bowel obstruction are related to accumulation of fluid and gas proximal to the obstruction Malabsorption of nutrients is secondary to conditions that affect the small intestine Celiac disease is caused by an immune reaction in susceptible individuals when exposed to dietary gluten The inciting organism that causes antibiotic-associated colitis is A. E. coli B. C. difficile C. Salmonella D. Giardia B. C. difficile Impaired blood flow through the liver results in portal hypertension. This may produce esophageal varices The nurse is monitoring a client for early signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome. Which findings indicate this occurrence? Sweating and tachycardia The manifestations of a duodenal ulcer includes the following pain relieved by food intake What is the most common complication of esophageal varices? hemorrhage Which is a way that the kidneys help maintain acid-base balance? secrete hydrogen ions The kidneys secrete renin in response to a decreased blood pressure One potential cause of intrarenal failure is: Acute tubular necrosis Anemia can be seen with all of the following Gl disorders except? A) Gastroesophageal varices B) Celiac disease C) Ulcerative colitis D) Mechanical bowel obstruction D) Mechanical bowel obstruction Pseudomembraneous colitis can cause all of the following except? A) Diarrhea B) Rectal bleeding C) Elevated WBC count D) Esophageal varices D) Esophageal varices Specific LLQ abdominal pain is seen with which of the following disorders? Diverticulitis Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease will lead to - Liver failure Nephrotic syndrome can lead to hyperlipidemia due to Liver activation What sign or symptom does the nurse associate with acute glomerulonephritis? Sore throat (Strep) or throat infection UTls can be caused by all the following except? A) Poor hygiene after bowel movement B) Older age C) Urinarv retention D) Immunosuppression B) Older age Which of the following is not seen with inflammation? A) Increased capillary permeability B) Erythema C) Swelling D) Hypothermia D) Hypothermia