AACN CCRN (Adult) 150 Questions
with Answers and Rationales
PRACTICE EXAM REVIEWS WITH
COMPLETE ACTUAL EXAM 2025-2026
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A+
(MOST RECENT!!)
1. Which hemodynamic parameter best reflects left ventricular
preload?
A. Cardiac output
B. Systemic vascular resistance
C. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP)
D. Mean arterial pressure
Answer: C. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP)
Rationale: PAOP estimates left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
under normal conditions and is commonly used as an indicator of left
ventricular preload.
2. A patient develops ventricular fibrillation. What is the priority
intervention?
A. Administer amiodarone
B. Start chest compressions only
,C. Immediate defibrillation
D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
Answer: C. Immediate defibrillation
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a shockable rhythm. Early
defibrillation offers the greatest chance of survival.
3. Which electrolyte abnormality is most likely to produce peaked T
waves?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: C. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Elevated potassium levels increase myocardial excitability,
producing tall, peaked T waves.
4. Which medication is considered first-line vasopressor therapy for
septic shock?
A. Dopamine
B. Phenylephrine
C. Vasopressin
D. Norepinephrine
Answer: D. Norepinephrine
Rationale: Norepinephrine is recommended as the initial vasopressor
because it effectively increases vascular tone with fewer arrhythmias.
5. A patient with ARDS should receive which ventilator strategy?
,A. High tidal volume
B. Zero PEEP
C. Low tidal volume ventilation
D. Mandatory hyperventilation
Answer: C. Low tidal volume ventilation
Rationale: Lung-protective ventilation using approximately 6 mL/kg
predicted body weight reduces ventilator-induced lung injury.
6. Which finding is most consistent with cardiogenic shock?
A. Warm extremities
B. High cardiac output
C. Elevated PAOP with low cardiac output
D. Low systemic vascular resistance
Answer: C. Elevated PAOP with low cardiac output
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock is characterized by pump failure
resulting in elevated filling pressures and reduced cardiac output.
7. What is the primary goal of PEEP?
A. Reduce blood pressure
B. Lower oxygen consumption
C. Prevent alveolar collapse
D. Increase respiratory rate
Answer: C. Prevent alveolar collapse
Rationale: PEEP maintains alveolar recruitment, improving
oxygenation and functional residual capacity.
8. Which rhythm requires synchronized cardioversion?
, A. Asystole
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Unstable atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response
D. Pulseless electrical activity
Answer: C. Unstable atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular
response
Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable
tachyarrhythmias with a pulse.
9. Which assessment finding suggests increased intracranial
pressure?
A. Bradycardia only
B. Hypotension
C. Cushing's triad
D. Tachypnea
Answer: C. Cushing's triad
Rationale: Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations
indicate elevated intracranial pressure.
10. Which laboratory value is most concerning in a patient receiving
heparin?
A. Platelets 275,000/µL
B. INR 1.1
C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
D. Platelets 60,000/µL
Answer: D. Platelets 60,000/µL
Rationale: A significant platelet decrease raises concern for heparin-
induced thrombocytopenia.
with Answers and Rationales
PRACTICE EXAM REVIEWS WITH
COMPLETE ACTUAL EXAM 2025-2026
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A+
(MOST RECENT!!)
1. Which hemodynamic parameter best reflects left ventricular
preload?
A. Cardiac output
B. Systemic vascular resistance
C. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP)
D. Mean arterial pressure
Answer: C. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP)
Rationale: PAOP estimates left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
under normal conditions and is commonly used as an indicator of left
ventricular preload.
2. A patient develops ventricular fibrillation. What is the priority
intervention?
A. Administer amiodarone
B. Start chest compressions only
,C. Immediate defibrillation
D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
Answer: C. Immediate defibrillation
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a shockable rhythm. Early
defibrillation offers the greatest chance of survival.
3. Which electrolyte abnormality is most likely to produce peaked T
waves?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: C. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Elevated potassium levels increase myocardial excitability,
producing tall, peaked T waves.
4. Which medication is considered first-line vasopressor therapy for
septic shock?
A. Dopamine
B. Phenylephrine
C. Vasopressin
D. Norepinephrine
Answer: D. Norepinephrine
Rationale: Norepinephrine is recommended as the initial vasopressor
because it effectively increases vascular tone with fewer arrhythmias.
5. A patient with ARDS should receive which ventilator strategy?
,A. High tidal volume
B. Zero PEEP
C. Low tidal volume ventilation
D. Mandatory hyperventilation
Answer: C. Low tidal volume ventilation
Rationale: Lung-protective ventilation using approximately 6 mL/kg
predicted body weight reduces ventilator-induced lung injury.
6. Which finding is most consistent with cardiogenic shock?
A. Warm extremities
B. High cardiac output
C. Elevated PAOP with low cardiac output
D. Low systemic vascular resistance
Answer: C. Elevated PAOP with low cardiac output
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock is characterized by pump failure
resulting in elevated filling pressures and reduced cardiac output.
7. What is the primary goal of PEEP?
A. Reduce blood pressure
B. Lower oxygen consumption
C. Prevent alveolar collapse
D. Increase respiratory rate
Answer: C. Prevent alveolar collapse
Rationale: PEEP maintains alveolar recruitment, improving
oxygenation and functional residual capacity.
8. Which rhythm requires synchronized cardioversion?
, A. Asystole
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Unstable atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response
D. Pulseless electrical activity
Answer: C. Unstable atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular
response
Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable
tachyarrhythmias with a pulse.
9. Which assessment finding suggests increased intracranial
pressure?
A. Bradycardia only
B. Hypotension
C. Cushing's triad
D. Tachypnea
Answer: C. Cushing's triad
Rationale: Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations
indicate elevated intracranial pressure.
10. Which laboratory value is most concerning in a patient receiving
heparin?
A. Platelets 275,000/µL
B. INR 1.1
C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
D. Platelets 60,000/µL
Answer: D. Platelets 60,000/µL
Rationale: A significant platelet decrease raises concern for heparin-
induced thrombocytopenia.
