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RN PHARMACOLOGY A RELIAS PRACTICE EXAM | STUDY GUIDE | TESTBANK | LATEST UPDATE 2026/2027 | QUESTIONS | 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

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RN PHARMACOLOGY A RELIAS PRACTICE EXAM | STUDY GUIDE | TESTBANK | LATEST UPDATE 2026/2027 | QUESTIONS | 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

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RN PHARMACOLOGY A RELIAS PRACTICE EXAM |
STUDY GUIDE | TESTBANK | LATEST UPDATE
2026/2027 | QUESTIONS | 100% CORRECT ANSWERS
Table of Contents
Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics
Medication Safety and High-Alert Medications
Cardiovascular Pharmacology
Antimicrobial Therapy
Endocrine Pharmacology
Neurologic and Psychiatric Medications
Pain Management
Respiratory Pharmacology
Renal and Electrolyte Management
Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
Professional Judgment, Documentation, and Patient Education

Introduction
This practice examination is designed to reflect the level of clinical reasoning
expected of registered nurses preparing for a Relias Pharmacology assessment. The
questions emphasize safe medication administration, pharmacologic principles,
evidence-based clinical decision-making, patient assessment, adverse effect
recognition, therapeutic monitoring, and nursing interventions across major drug
classifications. Candidates should expect scenario-based questions that require
prioritization, interpretation of clinical findings, application of pharmacologic
knowledge, and sound professional judgment rather than simple memorization. The
content aligns with current nursing pharmacology principles and medication safety
standards applicable to contemporary clinical practice for the 2026/2027 study
period.




Question 1

,A hospitalized patient receiving IV unfractionated heparin develops hematuria and
bleeding from venipuncture sites. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
is markedly prolonged. Which medication should the nurse anticipate
administering?

A. Phytonadione

B. Protamine sulfate

C. Tranexamic acid

D. Idarucizumab


Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Protamine sulfate rapidly neutralizes unfractionated heparin and is
the recommended reversal agent for significant heparin-associated bleeding.




Question 2
A patient with heart failure receiving digoxin reports nausea, blurred vision, and
seeing yellow halos around lights. Which nursing action is the priority?

A. Administer the next scheduled dose.

B. Assess serum digoxin and potassium levels.

C. Encourage increased fluid intake.

D. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position.


Correct Answer: B

Explanation: These findings suggest digoxin toxicity. Serum digoxin concentration
and potassium should be evaluated immediately before additional doses are
given.

,Question 3
A nurse prepares to administer insulin glargine and regular insulin before breakfast.
Which action is appropriate?

A. Mix both insulins in the same syringe.

B. Administer both intravenously.

C. Administer each as separate injections.

D. Delay glargine until bedtime.


Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Insulin glargine should never be mixed with other insulins because
mixing alters its prolonged-release characteristics.




Question 4
A patient receiving vancomycin develops flushing, erythema, and pruritus during
the infusion. Blood pressure remains stable. What is the most appropriate
intervention?

A. Permanently discontinue vancomycin.

B. Slow the infusion rate and notify the provider.

C. Administer epinephrine immediately.

D. Increase the infusion rate.


Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The presentation is consistent with infusion-related "Red Man
Syndrome," which is minimized by slowing the infusion and administering future
doses over a longer period.

, Question 5
Which assessment finding requires withholding the scheduled dose of metoprolol?

A. Respiratory rate 18/min

B. Blood pressure 124/72 mmHg

C. Heart rate 48 beats/min

D. Temperature 37.1°C


Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Significant bradycardia is a common parameter for withholding
beta-blockers pending provider evaluation.




Question 6
A patient taking warfarin is prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which
response by the nurse is most appropriate?

A. No interaction exists.

B. Expect decreased INR.

C. Increased INR and bleeding risk should be anticipated.

D. Double the warfarin dose.


Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole significantly potentiates warfarin,
increasing INR and bleeding risk.




Question 7

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