NUR 280 COMP 1 EXAM
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
ALREADY GRADED A+. 100%
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
190 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 280 COMP 1 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS
| UPDATED PER LATEST GUIDELINES | GRADED A+. It contains 190 carefully selected questions that reflect
the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a
detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 190 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 280 COMP 1 AND Already A 100 Solutions Updated PER Guidelines A
Nursing Undergraduate YEAR 3
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Foundations OF Mental Section B - Therapeutic
Health Nursing Communication AND Relationships
Questions 1 to 48 Questions 49 to 96
Section C - Legal AND Ethical Issues Section D - Psychopharmacology
IN Psychiatric CARE Questions 145 to 190
Questions 97 to 144
,Section A - Foundations OF Mental Health Nursing
Q1.
A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is on volume-controlled
ventilation. Plateau pressure is 32 cm H2O, and PaO2/FiO2 ratio is 150. Which intervention
is most appropriate to reduce ventilator-induced lung injury?
A. Increase positive end-expiratory pressure B. Switch to pressure-controlled ventilation
(PEEP) to 18 cm H2O and decrease tidal with inspiratory pressure set at 35 cm H2O.
volume to 4 mL/kg predicted body weight.
C. Administer a neuromuscular blocking D. Perform a recruitment maneuver with
agent and increase FiO2 to 1.0. sustained inflation at 40 cm H2O for 40
seconds.
Correct: A - Increase positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to 18 cm H2O and decrease
tidal volume to 4 mL/kg predicted body weight.
Rationale:Low tidal volume ventilation (4-6 mL/kg PBW) and higher PEEP are lung-protective
strategies shown to reduce mortality in ARDS. Plateau pressure >30 cm H2O indicates
overdistention; decreasing tidal volume and increasing PEEP can improve oxygenation while
limiting volutrauma. Option B increases risk of barotrauma; option C may improve
oxygenation transiently but does not address lung protection; option D can cause
hemodynamic compromise and is not first-line.
Q2.
A patient receiving IV heparin for acute pulmonary embolism develops a new headache
and blood pressure of 168/94 mm Hg. Which assessment finding most suggests a
complication requiring immediate action?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time B. Platelet count of 95,000/mm³.
(aPTT) of 75 seconds.
C. International normalized ratio (INR) of D. Hemoglobin level of 13.5 g/dL.
1.2.
Correct: B - Platelet count of 95,000/mm³.
Rationale:Thrombocytopenia (platelet count <150,000/mm³) in a patient on heparin raises
suspicion for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), which can cause paradoxical
thrombosis. New headache and hypertension may indicate cerebral sinus thrombosis or
intracerebral hemorrhage. HIT requires immediate cessation of heparin and alternative
anticoagulation. A mildly elevated aPTT (75 seconds) is therapeutic; INR is normal;
hemoglobin is normal.
Page 3
, Section A - Foundations OF Mental Health Nursing
Q3.
Which pathophysiological mechanism best explains why patients with chronic kidney
disease (CKD) stage 4 are at increased risk for cardiovascular events despite normal
serum calcium and phosphate levels?
A. Accumulation of asymmetric B. Increased fibroblast growth factor 23
dimethylarginine (ADMA) inhibiting nitric (FGF23) levels causing left ventricular
oxide synthase. hypertrophy.
C. Elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) D. Decreased klotho expression reducing
leading to vascular calcification. endothelial nitric oxide production.
Correct: B - Increased fibroblast growth factor 23 (FGF23) levels causing left ventricular
hypertrophy.
Rationale:FGF23 rises early in CKD to promote phosphate excretion, but high FGF23 directly
induces left ventricular hypertrophy and is associated with heart failure and mortality,
independent of serum phosphate or calcium. ADMA accumulates but is less established; PTH
elevation occurs later; klotho deficiency contributes but FGF23 is the primary driver of cardiac
risk in early-moderate CKD.
Q4.
A patient with septic shock on norepinephrine at 0.5 mcg/kg/min continues to have a
mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 58 mm Hg and cardiac index of 2.0 L/min/m². Which
intervention is most appropriate based on the latest Surviving Sepsis Campaign
guidelines?
A. Add vasopressin at 0.03 units/min. B. Increase norepinephrine to 0.7
mcg/kg/min.
C. Initiate dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/min. D. Administer a 500 mL crystalloid bolus.
Correct: A - Add vasopressin at 0.03 units/min.
Rationale:In septic shock requiring high-dose norepinephrine (>0.25 mcg/kg/min) to maintain
MAP, adding vasopressin (0.03 U/min) is recommended as second-line vasopressor to
achieve target MAP and reduce norepinephrine dose. Increasing norepinephrine further may
cause excessive vasoconstriction; dobutamine is not first-line for low cardiac index unless
preload and MAP are adequate; fluid bolus is unlikely to help if patient is already
fluid-resuscitated and vasopressor-dependent.
Q5.
A patient with cirrhosis and ascites develops acute kidney injury (AKI) with serum
creatinine rising from 0.8 to 2.5 mg/dL over 48 hours. Urine sodium is <10 mEq/L and
fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) is 0.5%. Which intervention is most likely to improve
renal function?
Page 4
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
ALREADY GRADED A+. 100%
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
190 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 280 COMP 1 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS
| UPDATED PER LATEST GUIDELINES | GRADED A+. It contains 190 carefully selected questions that reflect
the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a
detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 190 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 280 COMP 1 AND Already A 100 Solutions Updated PER Guidelines A
Nursing Undergraduate YEAR 3
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Foundations OF Mental Section B - Therapeutic
Health Nursing Communication AND Relationships
Questions 1 to 48 Questions 49 to 96
Section C - Legal AND Ethical Issues Section D - Psychopharmacology
IN Psychiatric CARE Questions 145 to 190
Questions 97 to 144
,Section A - Foundations OF Mental Health Nursing
Q1.
A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is on volume-controlled
ventilation. Plateau pressure is 32 cm H2O, and PaO2/FiO2 ratio is 150. Which intervention
is most appropriate to reduce ventilator-induced lung injury?
A. Increase positive end-expiratory pressure B. Switch to pressure-controlled ventilation
(PEEP) to 18 cm H2O and decrease tidal with inspiratory pressure set at 35 cm H2O.
volume to 4 mL/kg predicted body weight.
C. Administer a neuromuscular blocking D. Perform a recruitment maneuver with
agent and increase FiO2 to 1.0. sustained inflation at 40 cm H2O for 40
seconds.
Correct: A - Increase positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to 18 cm H2O and decrease
tidal volume to 4 mL/kg predicted body weight.
Rationale:Low tidal volume ventilation (4-6 mL/kg PBW) and higher PEEP are lung-protective
strategies shown to reduce mortality in ARDS. Plateau pressure >30 cm H2O indicates
overdistention; decreasing tidal volume and increasing PEEP can improve oxygenation while
limiting volutrauma. Option B increases risk of barotrauma; option C may improve
oxygenation transiently but does not address lung protection; option D can cause
hemodynamic compromise and is not first-line.
Q2.
A patient receiving IV heparin for acute pulmonary embolism develops a new headache
and blood pressure of 168/94 mm Hg. Which assessment finding most suggests a
complication requiring immediate action?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time B. Platelet count of 95,000/mm³.
(aPTT) of 75 seconds.
C. International normalized ratio (INR) of D. Hemoglobin level of 13.5 g/dL.
1.2.
Correct: B - Platelet count of 95,000/mm³.
Rationale:Thrombocytopenia (platelet count <150,000/mm³) in a patient on heparin raises
suspicion for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), which can cause paradoxical
thrombosis. New headache and hypertension may indicate cerebral sinus thrombosis or
intracerebral hemorrhage. HIT requires immediate cessation of heparin and alternative
anticoagulation. A mildly elevated aPTT (75 seconds) is therapeutic; INR is normal;
hemoglobin is normal.
Page 3
, Section A - Foundations OF Mental Health Nursing
Q3.
Which pathophysiological mechanism best explains why patients with chronic kidney
disease (CKD) stage 4 are at increased risk for cardiovascular events despite normal
serum calcium and phosphate levels?
A. Accumulation of asymmetric B. Increased fibroblast growth factor 23
dimethylarginine (ADMA) inhibiting nitric (FGF23) levels causing left ventricular
oxide synthase. hypertrophy.
C. Elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) D. Decreased klotho expression reducing
leading to vascular calcification. endothelial nitric oxide production.
Correct: B - Increased fibroblast growth factor 23 (FGF23) levels causing left ventricular
hypertrophy.
Rationale:FGF23 rises early in CKD to promote phosphate excretion, but high FGF23 directly
induces left ventricular hypertrophy and is associated with heart failure and mortality,
independent of serum phosphate or calcium. ADMA accumulates but is less established; PTH
elevation occurs later; klotho deficiency contributes but FGF23 is the primary driver of cardiac
risk in early-moderate CKD.
Q4.
A patient with septic shock on norepinephrine at 0.5 mcg/kg/min continues to have a
mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 58 mm Hg and cardiac index of 2.0 L/min/m². Which
intervention is most appropriate based on the latest Surviving Sepsis Campaign
guidelines?
A. Add vasopressin at 0.03 units/min. B. Increase norepinephrine to 0.7
mcg/kg/min.
C. Initiate dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/min. D. Administer a 500 mL crystalloid bolus.
Correct: A - Add vasopressin at 0.03 units/min.
Rationale:In septic shock requiring high-dose norepinephrine (>0.25 mcg/kg/min) to maintain
MAP, adding vasopressin (0.03 U/min) is recommended as second-line vasopressor to
achieve target MAP and reduce norepinephrine dose. Increasing norepinephrine further may
cause excessive vasoconstriction; dobutamine is not first-line for low cardiac index unless
preload and MAP are adequate; fluid bolus is unlikely to help if patient is already
fluid-resuscitated and vasopressor-dependent.
Q5.
A patient with cirrhosis and ascites develops acute kidney injury (AKI) with serum
creatinine rising from 0.8 to 2.5 mg/dL over 48 hours. Urine sodium is <10 mEq/L and
fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) is 0.5%. Which intervention is most likely to improve
renal function?
Page 4
