NU 664C FAMILY PSYCHIATRIC
MENTAL HEALTH I EXAM
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
248 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NU 664C FAMILY PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH I EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED
A+. 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS | UPDATED PER LATEST GUIDELINES | GRADED A+. It contains 248
carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 248 Questions
Foundations - Application - NU 664c Family Psychiatric Mental Health I AND Already A 100 Solutions
Updated PER Guidelines A Family Psychiatric Mental Health I Graduate Advanced Pmhnp
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Therapeutic Section B - Psychopharmacology
Communication AND THE AND Medication Management
Nurse-patient Relationship Questions 63 to 124
Questions 1 to 62
Section C - Assessment AND Section D - MOOD Disorders
Diagnosis OF Psychiatric Disorders Depression AND Bipolar Disorder
Questions 125 to 186 Questions 187 to 248
,Section A - Therapeutic Communication AND THE
Nurse-patient Relationship
Q1.
A patient with treatment-resistant depression has failed adequate trials of two SSRIs and
one SNRI. They have a history of hypomanic episodes lasting 2-3 days but never met full
criteria for mania. Which next-step intervention is most supported by current evidence?
A. Add aripiprazole augmentation to current B. Switch to lamotrigine monotherapy
SSRI
C. Initiate ketamine infusion therapy D. Trial a monoamine oxidase inhibitor
(MAOI) with dietary restrictions
Correct: B - Switch to lamotrigine monotherapy
Rationale:Given the history of brief hypomanic episodes, the patient likely has bipolar II
disorder. Lamotrigine is first-line for bipolar depression. Aripiprazole augmentation carries risk
of switching to mania. Ketamine is not first-line and MAOIs require washout and carry dietary
risks.
Q2.
A patient with schizophrenia has persistent negative symptoms despite adequate
antipsychotic therapy. Which augmentation strategy is most supported by recent
meta-analyses?
A. Add a second-generation antipsychotic B. Add a selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitor
C. Add a glutamatergic agent (e.g., glycine) D. Add a cholinesterase inhibitor (e.g.,
donepezil)
Correct: C - Add a glutamatergic agent (e.g., glycine)
Rationale:Recent meta-analyses show glutamatergic agents, particularly glycine and
D-serine, modestly improve negative symptoms. SSRIs have inconsistent evidence. Adding
another antipsychotic increases side effects. Cholinesterase inhibitors are not effective for
negative symptoms.
Q3.
A patient on lithium therapy for bipolar I disorder presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and a
serum lithium level of 1.4 mEq/L. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Discontinue lithium immediately and start B. Reduce lithium dose and monitor renal
valproate function
Page 3
, Section A - Therapeutic Communication AND THE Nurse-patient Relationship
C. Add amiloride to manage lithium-induced D. Switch to carbamazepine to avoid renal
nephrogenic diabetes insipidus toxicity
Correct: C - Add amiloride to manage lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Rationale:Amiloride is first-line for lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Lithium
level is within therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L maintenance; 1.4 is high but not toxic).
Reducing dose may help but amiloride directly addresses the ADH resistance. Immediate
discontinuation risks relapse.
Q4.
A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) has not responded to first-line SSRIs
and CBT. They have comorbid chronic pain. Which medication offers a dual benefit?
A. Buspirone B. Duloxetine
C. Pregabalin D. Hydroxyzine
Correct: B - Duloxetine
Rationale:Duloxetine is FDA-approved for GAD and chronic musculoskeletal pain. Buspirone
has no analgesic effect. Pregabalin is approved for GAD and neuropathic pain but is a
controlled substance. Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine with limited efficacy for chronic use.
Q5.
A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has severe contamination
obsessions and washing rituals. They have not responded to two adequate trials of SSRIs.
Which next step is most evidence-based?
A. Add clomipramine to current SSRI B. Switch to clomipramine monotherapy
C. Add aripiprazole augmentation D. Initiate deep transcranial magnetic
stimulation (dTMS)
Correct: A - Add clomipramine to current SSRI
Rationale:Combining clomipramine with an SSRI is effective for treatment-resistant OCD,
though requires monitoring for QTc prolongation and serotonin syndrome. Clomipramine
monotherapy is an option but augmentation with a different mechanism may be superior.
Aripiprazole has modest evidence. dTMS is FDA-approved but typically after multiple
medication trials.
Q6.
A patient with borderline personality disorder (BPD) presents with recurrent self-harm and
emotional dysregulation. Which psychotherapy has the strongest evidence for reducing
self-harm?
Page 4
MENTAL HEALTH I EXAM
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
248 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NU 664C FAMILY PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH I EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED
A+. 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS | UPDATED PER LATEST GUIDELINES | GRADED A+. It contains 248
carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 248 Questions
Foundations - Application - NU 664c Family Psychiatric Mental Health I AND Already A 100 Solutions
Updated PER Guidelines A Family Psychiatric Mental Health I Graduate Advanced Pmhnp
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Therapeutic Section B - Psychopharmacology
Communication AND THE AND Medication Management
Nurse-patient Relationship Questions 63 to 124
Questions 1 to 62
Section C - Assessment AND Section D - MOOD Disorders
Diagnosis OF Psychiatric Disorders Depression AND Bipolar Disorder
Questions 125 to 186 Questions 187 to 248
,Section A - Therapeutic Communication AND THE
Nurse-patient Relationship
Q1.
A patient with treatment-resistant depression has failed adequate trials of two SSRIs and
one SNRI. They have a history of hypomanic episodes lasting 2-3 days but never met full
criteria for mania. Which next-step intervention is most supported by current evidence?
A. Add aripiprazole augmentation to current B. Switch to lamotrigine monotherapy
SSRI
C. Initiate ketamine infusion therapy D. Trial a monoamine oxidase inhibitor
(MAOI) with dietary restrictions
Correct: B - Switch to lamotrigine monotherapy
Rationale:Given the history of brief hypomanic episodes, the patient likely has bipolar II
disorder. Lamotrigine is first-line for bipolar depression. Aripiprazole augmentation carries risk
of switching to mania. Ketamine is not first-line and MAOIs require washout and carry dietary
risks.
Q2.
A patient with schizophrenia has persistent negative symptoms despite adequate
antipsychotic therapy. Which augmentation strategy is most supported by recent
meta-analyses?
A. Add a second-generation antipsychotic B. Add a selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitor
C. Add a glutamatergic agent (e.g., glycine) D. Add a cholinesterase inhibitor (e.g.,
donepezil)
Correct: C - Add a glutamatergic agent (e.g., glycine)
Rationale:Recent meta-analyses show glutamatergic agents, particularly glycine and
D-serine, modestly improve negative symptoms. SSRIs have inconsistent evidence. Adding
another antipsychotic increases side effects. Cholinesterase inhibitors are not effective for
negative symptoms.
Q3.
A patient on lithium therapy for bipolar I disorder presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and a
serum lithium level of 1.4 mEq/L. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Discontinue lithium immediately and start B. Reduce lithium dose and monitor renal
valproate function
Page 3
, Section A - Therapeutic Communication AND THE Nurse-patient Relationship
C. Add amiloride to manage lithium-induced D. Switch to carbamazepine to avoid renal
nephrogenic diabetes insipidus toxicity
Correct: C - Add amiloride to manage lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Rationale:Amiloride is first-line for lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Lithium
level is within therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L maintenance; 1.4 is high but not toxic).
Reducing dose may help but amiloride directly addresses the ADH resistance. Immediate
discontinuation risks relapse.
Q4.
A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) has not responded to first-line SSRIs
and CBT. They have comorbid chronic pain. Which medication offers a dual benefit?
A. Buspirone B. Duloxetine
C. Pregabalin D. Hydroxyzine
Correct: B - Duloxetine
Rationale:Duloxetine is FDA-approved for GAD and chronic musculoskeletal pain. Buspirone
has no analgesic effect. Pregabalin is approved for GAD and neuropathic pain but is a
controlled substance. Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine with limited efficacy for chronic use.
Q5.
A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has severe contamination
obsessions and washing rituals. They have not responded to two adequate trials of SSRIs.
Which next step is most evidence-based?
A. Add clomipramine to current SSRI B. Switch to clomipramine monotherapy
C. Add aripiprazole augmentation D. Initiate deep transcranial magnetic
stimulation (dTMS)
Correct: A - Add clomipramine to current SSRI
Rationale:Combining clomipramine with an SSRI is effective for treatment-resistant OCD,
though requires monitoring for QTc prolongation and serotonin syndrome. Clomipramine
monotherapy is an option but augmentation with a different mechanism may be superior.
Aripiprazole has modest evidence. dTMS is FDA-approved but typically after multiple
medication trials.
Q6.
A patient with borderline personality disorder (BPD) presents with recurrent self-harm and
emotional dysregulation. Which psychotherapy has the strongest evidence for reducing
self-harm?
Page 4
