Pharmacotherapeutics for
Advanced Practice Nurse
Prescribers with Davis Edge
6th Edition
• Author(s)Teri Moser Woo; Wendy
L. Wright
TEST BANK
▪ The Foundation
▪ Pharmacotherapeutics with Single Drugs
▪ Pharmacotherapeutics with Multiple Drugs
▪ Special Drug Treatment Considerations
,Question 1
A family nurse practitioner (FNP) practicing in a state with full practice
authority is evaluating a 54-year-old patient with newly diagnosed
hypertension. The patient asks whether the APRN can prescribe
antihypertensive medication without physician approval. Which
response is most appropriate?
A. “I can prescribe independently because my state grants full practice
authority to APRNs.”
B. “I can prescribe only if a physician signs the prescription.”
C. “I can prescribe only after the patient is evaluated by a cardiologist.”
D. “I can prescribe controlled substances only, not antihypertensive
medications.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In states with full practice authority, APRNs may evaluate
patients, diagnose conditions, order and interpret tests, and prescribe
medications independently according to state law and board of nursing
regulations. Options B and C incorrectly impose physician oversight that
is not required in full practice authority states. Option D is incorrect
because APRNs may prescribe noncontrolled medications and, when
authorized, controlled substances.
Question 2
An AGPCNP is considering prescribing trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
for a 78-year-old patient with a urinary tract infection. The patient’s
medication list includes lisinopril and spironolactone. Which action is
the best initial prescribing decision?
,A. Prescribe the antibiotic without additional assessment.
B. Select an alternative antibiotic and evaluate the risk of hyperkalemia.
C. Discontinue lisinopril permanently before treating the infection.
D. Double the dose of spironolactone during antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Trimethoprim can increase serum potassium, and
concomitant use with an ACE inhibitor and spironolactone substantially
raises the risk of clinically significant hyperkalemia, especially in older
adults. The APRN should consider an alternative antibiotic and assess
renal function and electrolyte status. Option A ignores a major drug
interaction. Option C is unnecessarily permanent. Option D would
further increase hyperkalemia risk.
Question 3
A PMHNP prescribes sertraline for a patient with major depressive
disorder. Which patient counseling statement best reflects safe
prescribing responsibilities?
A. “Stop the medication immediately if you feel better after a few
days.”
B. “Take the medication exactly as prescribed and report worsening
mood or suicidal thoughts promptly.”
C. “You may double the dose if symptoms persist after one week.”
D. “Alcohol use will not affect this medication.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: APRNs have a responsibility to provide clear education
regarding adherence, expected onset of action, adverse effects, and
, warning signs that require immediate follow-up. SSRIs may initially
worsen anxiety or suicidal ideation in some patients, particularly
younger individuals, making close monitoring essential. Options A and C
promote unsafe medication use, and option D is inaccurate because
alcohol may worsen CNS effects and depression symptoms.
Question 4
A WHNP is asked to prescribe isotretinoin for severe acne. Which action
is required before initiating therapy?
A. Obtain baseline liver function tests and ensure compliance with the
FDA risk management program.
B. Begin therapy immediately because pregnancy testing can be
performed later.
C. Prescribe a 6-month supply to improve adherence.
D. Advise the patient that contraception is unnecessary during
treatment.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic and is subject to strict FDA
risk management requirements, including pregnancy testing,
contraception counseling, and program enrollment. Baseline laboratory
assessment is also recommended. Options B, C, and D violate safe
prescribing standards and place the patient at significant risk of fetal
harm.
Question 5
A pediatric nurse practitioner is prescribing amoxicillin for a 5-year-old
child with acute otitis media. The child weighs 18 kg. Which prescribing
principle is most important when determining the dose?
Advanced Practice Nurse
Prescribers with Davis Edge
6th Edition
• Author(s)Teri Moser Woo; Wendy
L. Wright
TEST BANK
▪ The Foundation
▪ Pharmacotherapeutics with Single Drugs
▪ Pharmacotherapeutics with Multiple Drugs
▪ Special Drug Treatment Considerations
,Question 1
A family nurse practitioner (FNP) practicing in a state with full practice
authority is evaluating a 54-year-old patient with newly diagnosed
hypertension. The patient asks whether the APRN can prescribe
antihypertensive medication without physician approval. Which
response is most appropriate?
A. “I can prescribe independently because my state grants full practice
authority to APRNs.”
B. “I can prescribe only if a physician signs the prescription.”
C. “I can prescribe only after the patient is evaluated by a cardiologist.”
D. “I can prescribe controlled substances only, not antihypertensive
medications.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In states with full practice authority, APRNs may evaluate
patients, diagnose conditions, order and interpret tests, and prescribe
medications independently according to state law and board of nursing
regulations. Options B and C incorrectly impose physician oversight that
is not required in full practice authority states. Option D is incorrect
because APRNs may prescribe noncontrolled medications and, when
authorized, controlled substances.
Question 2
An AGPCNP is considering prescribing trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
for a 78-year-old patient with a urinary tract infection. The patient’s
medication list includes lisinopril and spironolactone. Which action is
the best initial prescribing decision?
,A. Prescribe the antibiotic without additional assessment.
B. Select an alternative antibiotic and evaluate the risk of hyperkalemia.
C. Discontinue lisinopril permanently before treating the infection.
D. Double the dose of spironolactone during antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Trimethoprim can increase serum potassium, and
concomitant use with an ACE inhibitor and spironolactone substantially
raises the risk of clinically significant hyperkalemia, especially in older
adults. The APRN should consider an alternative antibiotic and assess
renal function and electrolyte status. Option A ignores a major drug
interaction. Option C is unnecessarily permanent. Option D would
further increase hyperkalemia risk.
Question 3
A PMHNP prescribes sertraline for a patient with major depressive
disorder. Which patient counseling statement best reflects safe
prescribing responsibilities?
A. “Stop the medication immediately if you feel better after a few
days.”
B. “Take the medication exactly as prescribed and report worsening
mood or suicidal thoughts promptly.”
C. “You may double the dose if symptoms persist after one week.”
D. “Alcohol use will not affect this medication.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: APRNs have a responsibility to provide clear education
regarding adherence, expected onset of action, adverse effects, and
, warning signs that require immediate follow-up. SSRIs may initially
worsen anxiety or suicidal ideation in some patients, particularly
younger individuals, making close monitoring essential. Options A and C
promote unsafe medication use, and option D is inaccurate because
alcohol may worsen CNS effects and depression symptoms.
Question 4
A WHNP is asked to prescribe isotretinoin for severe acne. Which action
is required before initiating therapy?
A. Obtain baseline liver function tests and ensure compliance with the
FDA risk management program.
B. Begin therapy immediately because pregnancy testing can be
performed later.
C. Prescribe a 6-month supply to improve adherence.
D. Advise the patient that contraception is unnecessary during
treatment.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic and is subject to strict FDA
risk management requirements, including pregnancy testing,
contraception counseling, and program enrollment. Baseline laboratory
assessment is also recommended. Options B, C, and D violate safe
prescribing standards and place the patient at significant risk of fetal
harm.
Question 5
A pediatric nurse practitioner is prescribing amoxicillin for a 5-year-old
child with acute otitis media. The child weighs 18 kg. Which prescribing
principle is most important when determining the dose?
