FAC-C CERTIFICATION EXAM with Questions
and Answers/Plus a Rationale Updated 2026
A+/Instant Download PDF
EXAM COVERAGE - 1. Federal Acquisition Regulations (FAR)
System & Governance - 2. Market Research & Acquisition Planning -
3. Contract Types, Pricing, & Cost Analysis - 4. Solicitation
Preparation & Source Selection - 5. Contract Administration,
Performance Monitoring, & Closeout
1. A contracting officer is evaluating a complex, high-risk IT systems integration requirement
where performance risks are significant and costs cannot be estimated with sufficient accuracy to
permit fixed-price contracting. Market research indicates that commercial solutions exist but
require extensive customization. Which contract type is most appropriate under the Federal
Acquisition Regulation (FAR)?
A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)
B. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF)
C. Time-and-Materials (T&M)
D. Fixed-Price Incentive (Firm Target)
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: When uncertainties involved in contract performance do not permit costs to be
estimated with sufficient accuracy to use any type of fixed-price contract, a cost-reimbursement
contract such as CPFF is appropriate. CPFF provides for payment of a negotiated fee that is
fixed at the inception of the contract, mitigating contractor risk when requirements are
undefined. FFP (Option A) is unsuitable due to high performance risk and unpredictable costs,
T&M (Option C) lacks the performance-based framework required for large-scale integration,
and Fixed-Price Incentive (Option D) requires cost targets that cannot yet be reliably
established.
2. During a negotiated competitive acquisition exceeding the Simplified Acquisition Threshold, a
contracting officer receives initial proposals and determines that discussions are necessary. The
contracting officer establishes a competitive range. A vendor excluded from the competitive
range submits a written request for a pre-award debriefing. What is the mandatory regulatory
timeline for providing this debriefing?
A. Within 3 days after receipt of the request
, B. Within 5 days after receipt of the request
C. Within 10 days after receipt of the request
D. Within 15 days after receipt of the request
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Under FAR 15.505, when an offered is excluded from the competitive range, they may
request a pre-award debriefing, and the contracting officer must make every effort to debrief the
offeror within 5 days after receipt of the timely request. Option A is incorrect because 3 days
does not match the regulatory standard for pre-award debriefings, while Options C and D
exceed the mandated timeframe, delaying the procurement process.
3. A federal agency requires commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS) software licenses with maintenance
support. The contracting officer is structuring the solicitation. According to FAR Part 12, what is
the preferred method for acquiring commercial items?
A. Sole-source negotiation under standard FAR Part 15 procedures
B. Streamlined solicitation procedures using commercial contract terms and conditions
C. Cost-reimbursement task orders under a GSA Multi-Agency Contract
D. Sealed bidding with a mandatory two-step technical evaluation
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: FAR Part 12 mandates the use of streamlined acquisition procedures to acquire
commercial items efficiently, integrating commercial practices with federal law. Sole-source
(Option A) requires strict justification, cost-reimbursement (Option C) is inappropriate for
standard COTS products, and sealed bidding (Option D) is generally not the preferred primary
method for commercial item acquisitions.
4. A contracting officer is conducting market research for a new facility maintenance requirement
valued at $8.5 million. The market research reveals a robust pool of capable small businesses
within the specific NAICS code, including multiple Historically Underutilized Business Zone
(HUBZone) and Service-Disabled Veteran-Owned Small Business (SDVOSB) concerns. What is
the mandatory order of precedence under the rule of two?
A. Full and open competition without small business set-asides
B. Set-aside exclusively for small businesses, with priority given to socio-economic
categories if criteria are met
C. Mandatory use of Federal Prison Industries (UNICOR) before commercial market entry
, D. Direct award to an 8(a) contractor without market research verification
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Under FAR Part 19, when the contracting officer has a reasonable expectation of
obtaining offers from at least two responsible small businesses at fair market prices (the Rule of
Two), the acquisition must be set aside for small business. Full and open competition (Option A)
is bypassed when small business capability exists. Unicor (Option C) and 8(a) direct awards
(Option D) do not supersede the mandatory application of small business set-asides when the
Rule of Two is satisfied.
5. A contractor performing a cost-plus-award-fee contract experiences severe cost overruns due to
mismanaged labor allocations. The Fee Determination Official is evaluating the contractor's
performance. Which action must be avoided regarding the award fee?
A. Evaluating performance against predetermined, objective and subjective criteria
B. Retroactively modifying the award fee evaluation plan after the evaluation period has
commenced
C. Withholding all or a portion of the available award fee for deficient performance
D. Documenting the rationale for the final award fee determination in the contract file
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: FAR 16.401 prohibits retroactively modifying award fee evaluation plans after the
evaluation period has begun, as this undermines the integrity and predictability of the incentive
structure. Options A, C, and D are standard, required practices for administering award-fee
structures effectively and transparently.
6. An agency head determines that an urgent and compelling requirement necessitates limiting
sources to a single contractor under FAR 6.302-2. The estimated value of the bridge contract is
$15 million. What level of approval is legally required for the Justification and Approval (J&A)
document?
A. Contracting Officer
B. Competition Advocate for the procuring activity
C. Head of the procuring activity or a designee
D. Senior Procurement Executive of the entire federal department
CORRECT ANSWER : C
, Rationale: Under FAR 6.304, for proposed contract actions between $15 million and $75
million, the approval authority for a Justification and Approval (J&A) based on unusual and
compelling urgency rests with the head of the procuring activity or a designee. A Contracting
Officer (Option A) lacks authority above the Simplified Acquisition Threshold, the Competition
Advocate (Option B) handles different thresholds, and the Senior Procurement Executive (Option
D) handles actions exceeding $75 million.
7. A warranted contracting officer issues a unilateral modification to a fixed-price supply contract
to incorporate a mandatory statutory change. The contractor refuses to acknowledge receipt or
proceed with the change, claiming the modification alters the commercial terms outside the
scope of the Changes clause. What is the legal status of the unilateral modification?
A. It is entirely void until bilaterally signed by the contractor
B. It is binding, and the contractor must perform while pursuing remedies under the
Disputes clause
C. It converts the contract into a termination for convenience automatically
D. It suspends all delivery schedules until a neutral mediator resolves the dispute
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Under the standard FAR 52.243-1 Changes clause, the contracting officer has the
unilateral authority to issue administrative or directional changes within the scope of the
contract. The contractor is legally obligated to continue performance under the dispute clause
while pursuing claims or appeals. Options A, C, and D misstate the legal binding nature of
administrative and contractual change mechanisms.
8. When developing an Independent Government Cost Estimate (IGCE) for a complex service
contract, the cost analyst utilizes parametric estimating techniques based on historical data from
similar completed programs. Which principle is fundamental to validating this IGCE?
A. Relying solely on the contractor’s proposed pricing to establish baseline costs
B. Adjusting historical data for inflation, technological changes, and distinct scope
variations
C. Eliminating indirect costs and fringe benefits from the calculation to simplify oversight
D. Assuming labor rates will remain constant across all option periods
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Parametric estimating requires adjustments for economic indexing (inflation),
technological upgrades, and scope variances to ensure historical baselines accurately reflect
and Answers/Plus a Rationale Updated 2026
A+/Instant Download PDF
EXAM COVERAGE - 1. Federal Acquisition Regulations (FAR)
System & Governance - 2. Market Research & Acquisition Planning -
3. Contract Types, Pricing, & Cost Analysis - 4. Solicitation
Preparation & Source Selection - 5. Contract Administration,
Performance Monitoring, & Closeout
1. A contracting officer is evaluating a complex, high-risk IT systems integration requirement
where performance risks are significant and costs cannot be estimated with sufficient accuracy to
permit fixed-price contracting. Market research indicates that commercial solutions exist but
require extensive customization. Which contract type is most appropriate under the Federal
Acquisition Regulation (FAR)?
A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)
B. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF)
C. Time-and-Materials (T&M)
D. Fixed-Price Incentive (Firm Target)
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: When uncertainties involved in contract performance do not permit costs to be
estimated with sufficient accuracy to use any type of fixed-price contract, a cost-reimbursement
contract such as CPFF is appropriate. CPFF provides for payment of a negotiated fee that is
fixed at the inception of the contract, mitigating contractor risk when requirements are
undefined. FFP (Option A) is unsuitable due to high performance risk and unpredictable costs,
T&M (Option C) lacks the performance-based framework required for large-scale integration,
and Fixed-Price Incentive (Option D) requires cost targets that cannot yet be reliably
established.
2. During a negotiated competitive acquisition exceeding the Simplified Acquisition Threshold, a
contracting officer receives initial proposals and determines that discussions are necessary. The
contracting officer establishes a competitive range. A vendor excluded from the competitive
range submits a written request for a pre-award debriefing. What is the mandatory regulatory
timeline for providing this debriefing?
A. Within 3 days after receipt of the request
, B. Within 5 days after receipt of the request
C. Within 10 days after receipt of the request
D. Within 15 days after receipt of the request
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Under FAR 15.505, when an offered is excluded from the competitive range, they may
request a pre-award debriefing, and the contracting officer must make every effort to debrief the
offeror within 5 days after receipt of the timely request. Option A is incorrect because 3 days
does not match the regulatory standard for pre-award debriefings, while Options C and D
exceed the mandated timeframe, delaying the procurement process.
3. A federal agency requires commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS) software licenses with maintenance
support. The contracting officer is structuring the solicitation. According to FAR Part 12, what is
the preferred method for acquiring commercial items?
A. Sole-source negotiation under standard FAR Part 15 procedures
B. Streamlined solicitation procedures using commercial contract terms and conditions
C. Cost-reimbursement task orders under a GSA Multi-Agency Contract
D. Sealed bidding with a mandatory two-step technical evaluation
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: FAR Part 12 mandates the use of streamlined acquisition procedures to acquire
commercial items efficiently, integrating commercial practices with federal law. Sole-source
(Option A) requires strict justification, cost-reimbursement (Option C) is inappropriate for
standard COTS products, and sealed bidding (Option D) is generally not the preferred primary
method for commercial item acquisitions.
4. A contracting officer is conducting market research for a new facility maintenance requirement
valued at $8.5 million. The market research reveals a robust pool of capable small businesses
within the specific NAICS code, including multiple Historically Underutilized Business Zone
(HUBZone) and Service-Disabled Veteran-Owned Small Business (SDVOSB) concerns. What is
the mandatory order of precedence under the rule of two?
A. Full and open competition without small business set-asides
B. Set-aside exclusively for small businesses, with priority given to socio-economic
categories if criteria are met
C. Mandatory use of Federal Prison Industries (UNICOR) before commercial market entry
, D. Direct award to an 8(a) contractor without market research verification
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Under FAR Part 19, when the contracting officer has a reasonable expectation of
obtaining offers from at least two responsible small businesses at fair market prices (the Rule of
Two), the acquisition must be set aside for small business. Full and open competition (Option A)
is bypassed when small business capability exists. Unicor (Option C) and 8(a) direct awards
(Option D) do not supersede the mandatory application of small business set-asides when the
Rule of Two is satisfied.
5. A contractor performing a cost-plus-award-fee contract experiences severe cost overruns due to
mismanaged labor allocations. The Fee Determination Official is evaluating the contractor's
performance. Which action must be avoided regarding the award fee?
A. Evaluating performance against predetermined, objective and subjective criteria
B. Retroactively modifying the award fee evaluation plan after the evaluation period has
commenced
C. Withholding all or a portion of the available award fee for deficient performance
D. Documenting the rationale for the final award fee determination in the contract file
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: FAR 16.401 prohibits retroactively modifying award fee evaluation plans after the
evaluation period has begun, as this undermines the integrity and predictability of the incentive
structure. Options A, C, and D are standard, required practices for administering award-fee
structures effectively and transparently.
6. An agency head determines that an urgent and compelling requirement necessitates limiting
sources to a single contractor under FAR 6.302-2. The estimated value of the bridge contract is
$15 million. What level of approval is legally required for the Justification and Approval (J&A)
document?
A. Contracting Officer
B. Competition Advocate for the procuring activity
C. Head of the procuring activity or a designee
D. Senior Procurement Executive of the entire federal department
CORRECT ANSWER : C
, Rationale: Under FAR 6.304, for proposed contract actions between $15 million and $75
million, the approval authority for a Justification and Approval (J&A) based on unusual and
compelling urgency rests with the head of the procuring activity or a designee. A Contracting
Officer (Option A) lacks authority above the Simplified Acquisition Threshold, the Competition
Advocate (Option B) handles different thresholds, and the Senior Procurement Executive (Option
D) handles actions exceeding $75 million.
7. A warranted contracting officer issues a unilateral modification to a fixed-price supply contract
to incorporate a mandatory statutory change. The contractor refuses to acknowledge receipt or
proceed with the change, claiming the modification alters the commercial terms outside the
scope of the Changes clause. What is the legal status of the unilateral modification?
A. It is entirely void until bilaterally signed by the contractor
B. It is binding, and the contractor must perform while pursuing remedies under the
Disputes clause
C. It converts the contract into a termination for convenience automatically
D. It suspends all delivery schedules until a neutral mediator resolves the dispute
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Under the standard FAR 52.243-1 Changes clause, the contracting officer has the
unilateral authority to issue administrative or directional changes within the scope of the
contract. The contractor is legally obligated to continue performance under the dispute clause
while pursuing claims or appeals. Options A, C, and D misstate the legal binding nature of
administrative and contractual change mechanisms.
8. When developing an Independent Government Cost Estimate (IGCE) for a complex service
contract, the cost analyst utilizes parametric estimating techniques based on historical data from
similar completed programs. Which principle is fundamental to validating this IGCE?
A. Relying solely on the contractor’s proposed pricing to establish baseline costs
B. Adjusting historical data for inflation, technological changes, and distinct scope
variations
C. Eliminating indirect costs and fringe benefits from the calculation to simplify oversight
D. Assuming labor rates will remain constant across all option periods
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Parametric estimating requires adjustments for economic indexing (inflation),
technological upgrades, and scope variances to ensure historical baselines accurately reflect
