OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Exam 1: BIOS252 / BIOS 252 (Latest Update
2026/2027) Anatomy & Physiology II with
Lab | Review Questions with Verified
Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A -
Chamberlain
75 2026/20272026/2027
100% 80%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION PASSING SCORE
TOPICS COVERED
• Cardiovascular System • Gas Exchange & Transport
• Hematology & Blood Components • Digestive System
• Lymphatic System • Metabolism & Nutrition
• Innate & Adaptive Immunity • Urinary System
• Respiratory System • Fluid, Electrolyte & Acid-Base Balance
This examination contains 75 questions across 5 sections.
All questions include detailed rationales for correct and incorrect answers.
Chamberlain College of Nursing | BIOS 252 Anatomy & Physiology II with Lab
COVER PAGE - 1
, Section 1: Cardiovascular System & Hematology Section 1
QUESTION 1
A 58-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents to the clinic complaining of chest tightness
during exertion that resolves with rest. His ECG shows ST-segment depression during treadmill testing.
The cardiologist explains that his coronary arteries are partially occluded by atherosclerotic plaques.
Which layer of the blood vessel wall is primarily affected in atherosclerosis?
A. The tunica intima, where endothelial damage allows lipid accumulation and plaque formation
B. The tunica media, where smooth muscle proliferation causes vessel narrowing
C. The tunica externa, where collagen deposition restricts vessel expansion
D. The vasa vasorum, where microvascular inflammation compromises nutrient delivery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Atherosclerosis begins with endothelial injury in the tunica intima, allowing LDL cholesterol to penetrate and oxidize,
triggering inflammatory responses and plaque development. While smooth muscle in the tunica media may migrate and
proliferate in response, the primary site of initiation is the intima.
QUESTION 2
A 42-year-old female marathon runner undergoes a routine physical examination. Her resting heart rate
is 48 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is 108/68 mmHg. Her physician notes that her cardiac
output remains adequate despite the bradycardia. Which physiological adaptation best explains how
her cardiovascular system maintains perfusion?
A. Increased stroke volume from enhanced ventricular filling during prolonged diastole
B. Elevated systemic vascular resistance from sympathetic vasoconstriction
C. Reduced venous compliance limiting blood return to the heart
D. Decreased myocardial contractility from parasympathetic dominance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Well-trained athletes develop increased stroke volume due to greater ventricular filling during the prolonged diastolic
period associated with bradycardia. This maintains cardiac output (CO = HR × SV) despite a lower heart rate. Elevated
vascular resistance would actually reduce perfusion and is not an adaptive mechanism in trained athletes.
, QUESTION 3
A 67-year-old male with chronic heart failure is being evaluated for his medication regimen. His
echocardiogram reveals an ejection fraction of 35%. The physician explains that his ventricles are not
emptying effectively during systole. Which phase of the cardiac cycle is primarily compromised in this
patient?
A. Ventricular ejection, when the semilunar valves open and blood is propelled into the arterial system
B. Isovolumetric contraction, when ventricular pressure rises without volume change
C. Rapid ventricular filling, when blood passively enters the relaxed ventricle
D. Atrial systole, when the atria contract to complete ventricular filling
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A reduced ejection fraction indicates impaired ventricular ejection during systole, when the aortic and pulmonary valves
open and blood is pumped into the arterial circulation. Isovolumetric contraction is preserved in many heart failure patients;
the primary deficit is in the ejection phase itself.
QUESTION 4
A 29-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation visits her obstetrician for a routine checkup. Her
blood pressure has dropped from 118/76 mmHg pre-pregnancy to 102/64 mmHg. The physician
explains that despite the lower pressure, uterine perfusion remains excellent. Which cardiovascular
change during pregnancy accounts for this maintained perfusion?
A. Decreased systemic vascular resistance due to progesterone-mediated vasodilation
B. Increased hematocrit from enhanced erythropoietin production
C. Elevated venous tone improving venous return to the heart
D. Reduced cardiac preload from inferior vena cava compression
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
During pregnancy, progesterone and other hormones cause widespread vasodilation, reducing systemic vascular
resistance. This decrease in afterload compensates for the physiologic anemia and maintains perfusion despite lower
blood pressure. Cardiac output actually increases by 30-50% through increased stroke volume.
, QUESTION 5
A 55-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with peripheral edema in his lower extremities. His
physician notes pitting edema and explains that capillary hydrostatic pressure exceeds the forces that
return fluid to the vasculature. Which Starling force is most directly responsible for the accumulation of
interstitial fluid in this patient?
A. Elevated capillary hydrostatic pressure from sodium and water retention
B. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure from hypoalbuminemia
C. Increased interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure from lymphatic obstruction
D. Reduced interstitial oncotic pressure from protein loss
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
In diabetic patients with renal complications, sodium and water retention increases blood volume and capillary hydrostatic
pressure, promoting fluid filtration into interstitial spaces. While hypoalbuminemia can cause edema, the primary
mechanism in diabetic nephropathy is volume expansion and increased hydrostatic pressure.
QUESTION 6
A 34-year-old female with a history of rheumatic fever as a child presents with dyspnea on exertion and
fatigue. Auscultation reveals an opening snap followed by a diastolic rumble at the apex.
Echocardiography shows thickened, fused leaflets with a fish-mouth appearance. Which heart valve is
affected, and what is the underlying pathophysiology?
A. The mitral valve, where commissural fusion restricts diastolic filling of the left ventricle
B. The aortic valve, where calcific degeneration obstructs systolic outflow
C. The tricuspid valve, where chordae tendineae rupture causes regurgitation
D. The pulmonary valve, where congenital stenosis limits right ventricular ejection
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Rheumatic heart disease most commonly affects the mitral valve, causing commissural fusion and stenosis. The opening
snap and diastolic rumble are classic findings. The fish-mouth appearance on echocardiography is pathognomonic for
rheumatic mitral stenosis. Aortic valve involvement typically produces a systolic ejection murmur.