HESI LPN-ADN HESI ENTRANCE EXAM (2026/2027) MOBILITY EXAMS GRADED A 100%

HESI LPN-ADN HESI ENTRANCE EXAM (2026/2027) MOBILITY EXAMS GRADED A 100% Question 1. The LPN/LVN is preparing a client for ambulation on the first postoperative day following coronary artery bypass grafting. Which intervention best promotes the client’s tolerance of this activity? A. Encouraging the client to ambulate on an empty stomach B. Premedicating the client with an analgesic 30 minutes before ambulation C. Having the client take a warm shower immediately before ambulation D. Restricting fluids to prevent bladder distention during ambulation Correct Answer: B Rationale: Premedicating with an analgesic before activity reduces pain, which decreases myocardial oxygen demand and sympathetic stress, improving the client’s ability to participate in ambulation. Question 2. The nurse observes a flat line on a client’s cardiac monitor. The client is alert, oriented, and conversing normally. What should the nurse do first? A. Initiate CPR immediately B. Check the client’s pulse and inspect the ECG leads C. Administer atropine per protocol D. Defibrillate the client at 200 joules Correct Answer: B Rationale: A flat line on the monitor is frequently a technical artifact from lead dislodgement. The nurse must first assess the client and verify lead placement before assuming cardiac arrest. Question 3. The nurse is monitoring a client following insertion of a permanent pacemaker via the right subclavian vein. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which movement to prevent lead dislodgement? A. Flexing the left wrist B. Abducting the right arm above shoulder level C. Rotating the neck to the left D. Bending the knees while standing Correct Answer: B Rationale: Abducting the arm on the side of the procedure can pull on the pacemaker leads before they become anchored, causing dislodgement. The client should avoid lifting the right arm above shoulder level. Question 4. A client diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left calf suddenly develops pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. The LPN/LVN recognizes these symptoms are most indicative of which complication? A. Myocardial infarction B. Pulmonary embolism C. Pneumothorax D. Pericarditis Correct Answer: B Rationale: Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis in a client with DVT are classic signs of a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication caused by a thrombus traveling to the pulmonary vasculature. Question 5. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with acute pulmonary edema. The client is severely dyspneic and has crackles audible in all lung fields. Which position should the nurse place the client in to best facilitate breathing? A. Supine with legs elevated B. High-Fowler’s position C. Left lateral recumbent position D. Low-Fowler’s position Correct Answer: B Rationale: High-Fowler’s position uses gravity to decrease venous return (preload) and allows for maximum lung expansion, reducing dyspnea in clients with pulmonary edema. Question 6. The nurse is caring for a client who underwent cardioversion 2 hours ago. Which assessment finding warrants immediate follow-up? A. Blood pressure 118/72 mmHg B. Oxygen saturation 94% on room air C. Absence of gag reflex and snoring respirations D. Temperature 37.2°C (99.0°F) Correct Answer: C Rationale: Absence of a gag reflex with snoring respirations indicates airway compromise from sedation, which is the highest priority according to the ABC framework. Question 7. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) intravenously. The LPN/LVN understands that this medication is primarily given to achieve which therapeutic effect? A. Increase cardiac contractility B. Reduce preload through diuresis C. Decrease afterload by vasodilation D. Increase heart rate and cardiac output Correct Answer: B Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes rapid excretion of fluid, reducing preload and relieving pulmonary congestion in heart failure. Question 8. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with a new permanent pacemaker. Which statement by the client requires further teaching? A. “I will carry my pacemaker identification card at all times.” B. “I can use a microwave oven as long as I stand 2 feet away.” C. “I should avoid lifting my arm on the pacemaker side above my head.” D. “I will notify my dentist that I have a pacemaker before any procedure.” Correct Answer: B Rationale: Microwave ovens are generally safe and do not interfere with modern pacemakers. However, the client should avoid close proximity to strong electromagnetic fields such as MRI machines, large generators, or arc welding equipment. Question 9. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client on a continuous cardiac monitor. The monitor shows a sinus rhythm with frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). The client is asymptomatic. What is the nurse’s priority action? A. Prepare to administer lidocaine intravenously B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately C. Continue to monitor the client and document the rhythm D. Defibrillate the client at 360 joules Correct Answer: C Rationale: Asymptomatic PVCs do not require immediate intervention. The nurse should continue monitoring, document the rhythm, and report the finding to the RN or provider as part of ongoing assessment. Question 10. The nurse is caring for a client who had a myocardial infarction 3 days ago. The client suddenly develops jugular venous distention, muffled heart sounds, and hypotension. The LPN/LVN suspects which complication? A. Cardiac tamponade B. Pulmonary embolism C. Left-sided heart failure D. Ventricular aneurysm Correct Answer: A Rationale: Beck’s triad—jugular venous distention, muffled heart sounds, and hypotension—is classic for cardiac tamponade, a complication that can occur after myocardial infarction due to pericardial effusion. Question 11. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to hold the medication and notify the RN? A. Apical pulse of 62 beats per minute B. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L C. Blood pressure of 138/88 mmHg D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute Correct Answer: B Rationale: Hypokalemia (potassium 3.5 mEq/L) increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should hold the medication and report the low potassium level for correction. Question 12. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing teaching with a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? A. “I will avoid eating large amounts of green leafy vegetables.” B. “I should report any unusual bleeding to my doctor.” C. “I can take ibuprofen for headaches because it is over-the-counter.” D. “I will have my blood tested regularly to check my INR.” Correct Answer: C Rationale: Ibuprofen and other NSAIDs increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin. The client should avoid these medications and use safer alternatives like acetaminophen. Question 13. The nurse is monitoring a client with pericarditis. Which finding indicates a potential complication of cardiac tamponade? A. Hypertension and bradycardia B. Distended neck veins and narrowed pulse pressure C. Crackles in the lung bases and peripheral edema D. Fever and elevated white blood cell count Correct Answer: B Rationale: Distended neck veins (increased venous pressure) and narrowed pulse pressure are signs of cardiac tamponade, where fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart. Question 14. A client with unstable angina is receiving continuous intravenous nitroglycerin. The LPN/LVN should monitor the client for which adverse effect of this therapy? A. Hypertension and tachycardia B. Headache and hypotension C. Bradycardia and hyperglycemia D. Hyperkalemia and dizziness Correct Answer: B Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator that commonly causes headache (from meningeal vasodilation) and hypotension. The nurse should monitor blood pressure closely during infusion.