CELLULAR BIOLOGY, INJURY MECHANISMS, AND ONCOLOGY
(GENETICS & CANCER) WITH 200 PRACTICE QUESTIONS, CORRECT
ANSWERS, AND DETAILED RATIONALES FOR EASTWICK COLLEGE
Q1: A patient is diagnosed with a condition that leads to a significant
decrease in the number of functioning ribosomes. What cellular
process will be most directly impaired?
A) ATP production
B) Lipid synthesis
C) Protein synthesis
D) DNA replication
Correct ANSWER: C) Protein synthesis
Rationale: Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis, where mRNA is
translated into polypeptide chains. A decrease in ribosomes would
directly impair the cell's ability to produce proteins necessary for
structure, function, and enzymes.
Q2: Which transport mechanism requires the direct use of ATP to
move molecules against their concentration gradient?
A) Facilitated diffusion
B) Osmosis
C) Active transport
D) Simple diffusion
Correct ANSWER: C) Active transport
,Rationale: Active transport uses energy (ATP) to pump molecules and
ions across a membrane from an area of lower concentration to an area
of higher concentration, against the gradient.
Q3: The sodium-potassium pump is an example of which type of
transport?
A) Osmosis
B) Facilitated diffusion
C) Active transport
D) Simple diffusion
Correct ANSWER: C) Active transport
Rationale: The sodium-potassium pump actively transports sodium out
of the cell and potassium into the cell, both against their concentration
gradients, using ATP.
Q4: A patient with a genetic defect has lysosomes that are non-
functional. What would be the primary consequence of this defect?
A) Inability to produce ATP
B) Accumulation of waste and cellular debris
C) Failure to synthesize proteins
D) Impaired lipid synthesis
Correct ANSWER: B) Accumulation of waste and cellular debris
Rationale: Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes responsible for
digesting cellular waste, damaged organelles, and pathogens. Their
dysfunction leads to the build-up of these substances.
,Q5: Which organelle is surrounded by a double membrane and
contains its own DNA?
A) Ribosome
B) Lysosome
C) Mitochondria
D) Golgi Apparatus
Correct ANSWER: C) Mitochondria
Rationale: Mitochondria are unique organelles with a double
membrane and their own circular DNA, which is evidence of their
evolutionary origin as independent prokaryotes.
Q6: A pathologist notes that a cell has an enlarged, lobulated nucleus
and prominent nucleoli. This is most characteristic of which process?
A) Necrosis
B) Apoptosis
C) Cellular hypertrophy
D) Cellular hyperplasia
Correct ANSWER: C) Cellular hypertrophy
Rationale: Enlarged nuclei and prominent nucleoli are signs of
increased protein synthesis, which is a hallmark of cellular hypertrophy
(an increase in cell size).
Q7: A patient is experiencing a severe allergic reaction. Which type of
cellular injury is most directly caused by the release of histamine?
, A) Hypoxic injury
B) Ischemic injury
C) Inflammatory injury
D) Direct chemical injury
Correct ANSWER: C) Inflammatory injury
Rationale: Histamine is a key mediator of inflammation, causing
vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. This inflammatory
response can lead to cellular injury and tissue damage.
Q8: Which of the following is a characteristic of reversible cellular
injury?
A) Nuclear fragmentation (karyorrhexis)
B) Swelling of the endoplasmic reticulum
C) Dissolution of the nucleus (karyolysis)
D) Rupture of the cell membrane
Correct ANSWER: B) Swelling of the endoplasmic reticulum
Rationale: In the early stages of injury, cells can undergo reversible
changes like cellular swelling and dilation of the ER. These changes are
not yet fatal and the cell can recover if the insult is removed.
Q9: A patient's cells are found to have fatty changes. This is most
commonly associated with injury to which organ?
A) Kidney
B) Heart