FAMILY CLINICAL PRACTICE II NURS 5338 CP2
FINAL EXAM BLUEPRINT & PRACTICE
QUESTION BANK
This high-yield exam preparation package contains
comprehensive, updated multiple-choice questions with
verified answers and authoritative medical rationales
specifically tailored for advanced practice nursing
students. The study guide directly targets core primary
care competencies across complex cardiovascular,
endocrine, gastroenterology, renal, and infectious disease
systems.
A 64-year-old male with a history of hypertension
is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. Which laboratory
value is most critical to monitor closely after
initiating this therapy?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Total cholesterol
D) Serum calcium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors suppress aldosterone
secretion, which can lead to potassium retention.
Patients are at a high risk for developing
,hyperkalemia, making regular monitoring of serum
potassium vital.
1. A patient presents to the urgent care clinic
complaining of crushing substernal chest pain
that radiates to the left jaw. What is the
immediate priority intervention?
A) Obtain a 12-lead ECG
B) Administer 325 mg of non-enteric-coated
aspirin
C) Draw blood for troponin levels
D) Administer 0.4 mg of sublingual nitroglycerin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: While all choices are parts of
standard chest pain protocols, early
administration of aspirin significantly reduces
mortality by inhibiting platelet aggregation at
the site of plaque rupture.
2. According to the JNC 8 guidelines, what is the
target blood pressure goal for a 65-year-old
patient with no history of diabetes or chronic
kidney disease (CKD)?
A) <130/80 mmHg
B) <140/90 mmHg
C) <150/90 mmHg
, D) <160/95 mmHg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: JNC 8 guidelines recommend a
higher systolic threshold of <150/90 mmHg for
individuals aged 60 years or older who do not
have diabetes or chronic kidney disease.
3. A 52-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes
mellitus and an LDL level of 135 mg/dL requires
cardiovascular risk management. What level of
statin therapy is indicated for this patient?
A) Low-intensity statin
B) Moderate-intensity statin
C) High-intensity statin
D) No statin therapy is required
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clinical guidelines recommend
moderate-intensity statin therapy for diabetic
patients aged 40–75 with standard risk factors
to reduce macrovascular complications.
4. A patient presents with reproducible calf pain
that occurs when walking two blocks and is
relieved completely by five minutes of rest.
Which diagnostic test is most appropriate to
confirm the suspected diagnosis?
, A) Venous duplex ultrasound
B) Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)
C) Magnetic resonance angiography
D) D-dimer assay
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient exhibits classic
intermittent claudication secondary to
Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD). An Ankle-
Brachial Index (ABI) value under 0.90 confirms
the diagnosis non-invasively.
5. A 45-year-old African American female
presents with a blood pressure of 152/94
mmHg. This is her second elevated reading in
the clinic. Which class of antihypertensive
medication is preferred as a first-line
treatment?
A) ACE inhibitor
B) Angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)
C) Thiazide diuretic or Calcium Channel Blocker
(CCB)
D) Beta-blocker
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clinical trial data show that African
American populations achieve better blood
FINAL EXAM BLUEPRINT & PRACTICE
QUESTION BANK
This high-yield exam preparation package contains
comprehensive, updated multiple-choice questions with
verified answers and authoritative medical rationales
specifically tailored for advanced practice nursing
students. The study guide directly targets core primary
care competencies across complex cardiovascular,
endocrine, gastroenterology, renal, and infectious disease
systems.
A 64-year-old male with a history of hypertension
is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. Which laboratory
value is most critical to monitor closely after
initiating this therapy?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Total cholesterol
D) Serum calcium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors suppress aldosterone
secretion, which can lead to potassium retention.
Patients are at a high risk for developing
,hyperkalemia, making regular monitoring of serum
potassium vital.
1. A patient presents to the urgent care clinic
complaining of crushing substernal chest pain
that radiates to the left jaw. What is the
immediate priority intervention?
A) Obtain a 12-lead ECG
B) Administer 325 mg of non-enteric-coated
aspirin
C) Draw blood for troponin levels
D) Administer 0.4 mg of sublingual nitroglycerin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: While all choices are parts of
standard chest pain protocols, early
administration of aspirin significantly reduces
mortality by inhibiting platelet aggregation at
the site of plaque rupture.
2. According to the JNC 8 guidelines, what is the
target blood pressure goal for a 65-year-old
patient with no history of diabetes or chronic
kidney disease (CKD)?
A) <130/80 mmHg
B) <140/90 mmHg
C) <150/90 mmHg
, D) <160/95 mmHg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: JNC 8 guidelines recommend a
higher systolic threshold of <150/90 mmHg for
individuals aged 60 years or older who do not
have diabetes or chronic kidney disease.
3. A 52-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes
mellitus and an LDL level of 135 mg/dL requires
cardiovascular risk management. What level of
statin therapy is indicated for this patient?
A) Low-intensity statin
B) Moderate-intensity statin
C) High-intensity statin
D) No statin therapy is required
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clinical guidelines recommend
moderate-intensity statin therapy for diabetic
patients aged 40–75 with standard risk factors
to reduce macrovascular complications.
4. A patient presents with reproducible calf pain
that occurs when walking two blocks and is
relieved completely by five minutes of rest.
Which diagnostic test is most appropriate to
confirm the suspected diagnosis?
, A) Venous duplex ultrasound
B) Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)
C) Magnetic resonance angiography
D) D-dimer assay
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient exhibits classic
intermittent claudication secondary to
Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD). An Ankle-
Brachial Index (ABI) value under 0.90 confirms
the diagnosis non-invasively.
5. A 45-year-old African American female
presents with a blood pressure of 152/94
mmHg. This is her second elevated reading in
the clinic. Which class of antihypertensive
medication is preferred as a first-line
treatment?
A) ACE inhibitor
B) Angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)
C) Thiazide diuretic or Calcium Channel Blocker
(CCB)
D) Beta-blocker
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clinical trial data show that African
American populations achieve better blood
