INDIANA QMA INSULIN ADMINISTRATION EXAM 2026/2027 | 200 VERIFIED QUESTIONS & CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES | COMPLETE TEST BANK & CERTIFICATION STUDY GUIDE

INDIANA QMA INSULIN ADMINISTRATION
EXAM 2026/2027 | 200 VERIFIED QUESTIONS
& CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES | COMPLETE TEST BANK &
CERTIFICATION STUDY GUIDE
INDIANA QMA INSULIN ADMINISTRATION EXAM 2026/2027

200 VERIFIED QUESTIONS & CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES



DOCUMENT OVERVIEW

• Comprehensive Study Resource: This test bank contains 200 questions covering
all essential competencies for insulin administration certification, designed to
prepare you thoroughly for the Indiana QMA examination with verified answers
and in-depth rationales for every question.

• How to Study: Work through these questions systematically, review rationales for
both correct and incorrect options, take practice tests in sections of 20-30
questions, and revisit challenging topics before your certification exam.




QUESTIONS & ANSWERS



QUESTION 1: Which of the following insulin types has the fastest onset of
action?

A) NPH insulin

B) Glargine (Lantus)

C) Lispro (Humalog)

D) Detemir (Levemir)

E) Insulin degludec (Tresiba)

CORRECT ANSWER: C) Lispro (Humalog)

,RATIONALE: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin analog with an onset of action of 10-15
minutes. It reaches peak effect within 1-2 hours. This makes it ideal for mealtime
coverage. NPH has an onset of 1-3 hours, while long-acting insulins (glargine,
detemir, and degludec) have delayed onsets of 1-2 hours or longer, with minimal
peak effects.



QUESTION 2: A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed Metformin. Which
statement best describes how this medication works?

A) It stimulates the pancreas to release more insulin

B) It decreases hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity

C) It slows carbohydrate absorption in the small intestine

D) It increases glucagon secretion

E) It directly lowers blood glucose by kidney filtration

CORRECT ANSWER: B) It decreases hepatic glucose production and improves
insulin sensitivity

RATIONALE: Metformin is a biguanide that works primarily by decreasing glucose
production in the liver (hepatic gluconeogenesis) and improving peripheral insulin
sensitivity. It does not directly stimulate insulin secretion like sulfonylureas. Option
A describes insulin secretagogues, option C describes alpha-glucosidase inhibitors,
option D describes glucagon's function (opposite effect), and option E is incorrect
because metformin doesn't work through kidney filtration.



QUESTION 3: When administering insulin subcutaneously, which anatomical
site has the fastest absorption rate?

A) Abdomen

B) Buttocks

C) Thighs

D) Upper arms

,E) Lower legs

CORRECT ANSWER: A) Abdomen

RATIONALE: The abdomen has the fastest and most consistent absorption rate for
subcutaneous insulin injection due to its rich vascularity and consistent tissue
composition. The abdomen is preferred for mealtime rapid-acting insulins.
Absorption rates vary: abdomen (fastest), arms, thighs, and buttocks (slowest).
Varying injection sites helps prevent lipohypertrophy and ensures predictable
glucose control.



QUESTION 4: A QMA observes that a patient's injection site shows a firm,
raised lump. What complication is this most likely?

A) Insulin allergy

B) Lipohypertrophy

C) Lipoatrophy

D) Injection site infection

E) Diabetic ketoacidosis

CORRECT ANSWER: B) Lipohypertrophy

RATIONALE: Lipohypertrophy is a hypertrophy (enlargement) of fatty tissue at
injection sites, presenting as firm, raised lumps. It occurs due to repeated injections
in the same location and the lipogenic effects of insulin. Lipoatrophy (option C)
involves loss of fatty tissue appearing as depression/dimpling. Infections would
present with redness, warmth, and drainage. Allergies cause urticaria. This
complication is prevented by rotating injection sites.



QUESTION 5: Which insulin should be administered immediately before
meals?

A) NPH insulin

B) Regular human insulin

, C) Insulin glargine

D) Insulin detemir

E) Insulin degludec

CORRECT ANSWER: B) Regular human insulin

RATIONALE: Regular human insulin has an onset of 30-60 minutes and is typically
given 30 minutes to 1 hour before meals. NPH is intermediate-acting (given twice
daily). Glargine, detemir, and degludec are long-acting basal insulins given once or
twice daily regardless of meals. Rapid-acting analogs (lispro, aspart, glulisine) are
given immediately before or at the beginning of meals and would also be
acceptable, but regular insulin is the classic example in traditional regimens.



QUESTION 6: A patient receives 40 units of insulin glargine subcutaneously at
2100 hours. The expected duration of action is approximately:

A) 8-12 hours

B) 16-20 hours

C) 24 hours or longer

D) 36-48 hours

E) 72 hours

CORRECT ANSWER: C) 24 hours or longer

RATIONALE: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting basal insulin with a duration
of action of approximately 24 hours or longer. It provides relatively steady insulin
levels throughout the day and night. This extended action makes it suitable for
once-daily dosing. Other insulins have varying durations: rapid-acting (3-5 hours),
regular (6-8 hours), NPH (10-16 hours), and other long-acting insulins have similar
or longer durations.



QUESTION 7: When mixing NPH and regular insulin in the same syringe, which
technique is correct?