Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) Barkley
Post-Test Fall 2025 Comprehensive Final
Exam with Verified Rationales Practice
Questions and Answers 2026 with
complete solution
Question 1
What does a positive posterior drawer sign in a 10-year-old soccer player signify?
A. Normal knee
B. Instability of the knee
C. Swelling on the knee
D. Injury to the meniscus
Answer: B
Rationale: The posterior drawer test is used to identify mediolateral or
anteroposterior plane instability of the knee. A positive posterior drawer indicates
posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) instability. The test is performed with the patient
supine and the knee at 90-degree flexion.
Question 2
A patient injures an ankle while playing soccer and reports rolling the foot inward
while falling with immediate pain and swelling of the lateral part of the joint. The
patient is able to bear weight and denies hearing an audible sound at the time of
injury. What does this history indicate?
,A. Likely ankle sprain with a possible fracture
B. Mild ankle injury without fracture
C. Mild soft tissue injury only
D. Serious ankle injury with certain fracture
Answer: A
Rationale: Immediate swelling of the joint raises the index of suspicion for a
fracture or a substantial amount of joint involvement. Without radiographs, none of
these possibilities can be confirmed.
Question 3
A patient who is a distance runner reports pain in one heel that is worse in the
morning and seems to improve with exercise. The provider notes localized swelling
and a bony prominence at the heel. What is the initial treatment for this condition?
A. Cessation of all sports activities and exercise
B. Crutches and partial weight bearing
C. Physical therapy for ultrasound therapy
D. Rest, ice, and stretching exercises
Answer: D
Rationale: This presentation is consistent with plantar fasciitis. Initial treatment
includes rest, ice, stretching exercises, and activity modification. Complete
cessation of activity is not typically required initially.
,Question 4
What is the average normal intraocular pressure?
A. 5 mmHg
B. 10 mmHg
C. 15 mmHg
D. 25 mmHg
Answer: C
Rationale: Normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10-21 mmHg, with an average
of approximately 15 mmHg. Pressures above 21 mmHg are considered elevated
and may indicate glaucoma.
Question 5
What is the minimum percentage of total body surface area (TBSA) to utilize the
Parkland formula for adults?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
Answer: C
Rationale: The Parkland formula is used for burn resuscitation in adults with burns
covering ≥20% TBSA. For burns <20% TBSA, oral fluids may be sufficient.
, Question 6
A 59-year-old is having a follow-up evaluation two years after the successful
conclusion of radiation therapy for leukemia. He reports feeling run-down with
unexplained weight loss, night sweats, fever, and pain below his ribs on the left
side. He is at risk for chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Which result is considered the
hallmark of this disease?
A. Philadelphia chromosome in leukemic cells
B. Lymphocytosis
C. Non-circulating blast cells in bone marrow
D. Pancytopenia with circulating blasts
Answer: B
Rationale: Lymphocytosis (elevated lymphocyte count) is the hallmark of chronic
lymphocytic leukemia. The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with chronic
myeloid leukemia (CML), not CLL.
Question 7
A 28-year-old single mother inquires about the hormonal intrauterine device (IUD).
Which is one of the advantages of using a hormonal IUD?
A. Prevention of depression
B. Prevention of Asherman's syndrome
C. Increased menstrual loss
D. Decreased menstrual bleeding
Answer: D
Post-Test Fall 2025 Comprehensive Final
Exam with Verified Rationales Practice
Questions and Answers 2026 with
complete solution
Question 1
What does a positive posterior drawer sign in a 10-year-old soccer player signify?
A. Normal knee
B. Instability of the knee
C. Swelling on the knee
D. Injury to the meniscus
Answer: B
Rationale: The posterior drawer test is used to identify mediolateral or
anteroposterior plane instability of the knee. A positive posterior drawer indicates
posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) instability. The test is performed with the patient
supine and the knee at 90-degree flexion.
Question 2
A patient injures an ankle while playing soccer and reports rolling the foot inward
while falling with immediate pain and swelling of the lateral part of the joint. The
patient is able to bear weight and denies hearing an audible sound at the time of
injury. What does this history indicate?
,A. Likely ankle sprain with a possible fracture
B. Mild ankle injury without fracture
C. Mild soft tissue injury only
D. Serious ankle injury with certain fracture
Answer: A
Rationale: Immediate swelling of the joint raises the index of suspicion for a
fracture or a substantial amount of joint involvement. Without radiographs, none of
these possibilities can be confirmed.
Question 3
A patient who is a distance runner reports pain in one heel that is worse in the
morning and seems to improve with exercise. The provider notes localized swelling
and a bony prominence at the heel. What is the initial treatment for this condition?
A. Cessation of all sports activities and exercise
B. Crutches and partial weight bearing
C. Physical therapy for ultrasound therapy
D. Rest, ice, and stretching exercises
Answer: D
Rationale: This presentation is consistent with plantar fasciitis. Initial treatment
includes rest, ice, stretching exercises, and activity modification. Complete
cessation of activity is not typically required initially.
,Question 4
What is the average normal intraocular pressure?
A. 5 mmHg
B. 10 mmHg
C. 15 mmHg
D. 25 mmHg
Answer: C
Rationale: Normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10-21 mmHg, with an average
of approximately 15 mmHg. Pressures above 21 mmHg are considered elevated
and may indicate glaucoma.
Question 5
What is the minimum percentage of total body surface area (TBSA) to utilize the
Parkland formula for adults?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
Answer: C
Rationale: The Parkland formula is used for burn resuscitation in adults with burns
covering ≥20% TBSA. For burns <20% TBSA, oral fluids may be sufficient.
, Question 6
A 59-year-old is having a follow-up evaluation two years after the successful
conclusion of radiation therapy for leukemia. He reports feeling run-down with
unexplained weight loss, night sweats, fever, and pain below his ribs on the left
side. He is at risk for chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Which result is considered the
hallmark of this disease?
A. Philadelphia chromosome in leukemic cells
B. Lymphocytosis
C. Non-circulating blast cells in bone marrow
D. Pancytopenia with circulating blasts
Answer: B
Rationale: Lymphocytosis (elevated lymphocyte count) is the hallmark of chronic
lymphocytic leukemia. The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with chronic
myeloid leukemia (CML), not CLL.
Question 7
A 28-year-old single mother inquires about the hormonal intrauterine device (IUD).
Which is one of the advantages of using a hormonal IUD?
A. Prevention of depression
B. Prevention of Asherman's syndrome
C. Increased menstrual loss
D. Decreased menstrual bleeding
Answer: D
