WGU D115 OA AND PRE-ASSESSMENT LATEST 2026/2027
TEST BANK | WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
OA & PA TEST BANK (BRAND NEW!!)
1. An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is working with patients at an
eating disorder clinic. One patient is a 64-year-old woman with a long history of
anorexia nervosa. Which health promotion intervention is appropriate for this patient
considering complications of her disease process?
A. Encouraging high-impact aerobic exercise
B. Recommending daily calcium and vitamin D supplements
C. Prescribing a cholesterol-lowering medication
D. Ordering a screening colonoscopy and antidiarrheal medication
Explanation: This patient is at high risk of osteoporosis and stress fractures due to the
extensive history of anorexia nervosa. The body changes its hormone production in
response to low body weight, which negatively affects bone growth and strength. Calcium
and vitamin D supplementation helps mitigate bone loss.
2. A young adult patient and the patient's spouse are meeting with an APRN for a
fertility consultation. The patient's spouse is of African American descent. Which
genetic condition has the highest prevalence in African Americans?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Huntington disease
D. Tay-Sachs disease
Explanation: Sickle cell disease has an increased prevalence in African Americans (1 in
600). It is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a mutation in the hemoglobin beta
chain gene.
3. A patient with a basal metabolic index (BMI) of 29 is seen by an APRN to discuss
routine health maintenance. The patient reports a strong family history of colorectal
,cancer and has hypertension and normal cholesterol. Which primary
recommendation should the APRN make to decrease the risk of colorectal cancer?
A. Multiple vitamin with iron daily
B. Exercise of one hour daily
C. Low-fat dietary intake daily
D. Two glasses of red wine daily
Explanation: A high-fat diet raises the risk of colorectal cancer. It would be important for
this patient who has a familial risk (nonmodifiable) for colorectal cancer to decrease as
many modifiable risks as possible.
4. A patient undergoes surgical consultation for the removal of scar tissue. The
APRN explains that keloid formation occurs during which phase of healing?
A. Inflammation
B. Proliferation
C. Reconstruction
D. Hemostasis
Explanation: Keloid formation occurs during reconstruction and is a dysfunctional collagen
synthesis, which may involve excessive production of collagen, causing surface over-
healing and leading to a hypertrophic scar or keloid. A hypertrophic scar is raised but
remains within the original boundaries of the wound and tends to regress over time. A keloid
is a raised scar that extends beyond the original boundaries of the wound, invades
surrounding tissue, and is likely to recur after surgical removal.
5. An APRN is consulting with a patient during a scheduled well-child visit. The
mother informs the APRN that her father-in-law has been diagnosed with Huntington
disease. The mother, husband, and her male child may also have the disease. The
APRN explains the disease is autosomal dominant and age-dependent and suggests
testing for the mother, husband, and child. Which additional information should the
APRN provide for this type of transmission?
A. Both parents must carry the autosomal dominant gene for the child to have the condition
B. Men are more likely to exhibit autosomal dominant diseases than women
C. Autosomal dominant diseases usually have a 50% recurrence risk
D. Autosomal dominant diseases typically have no treatments
,Explanation: Autosomal dominant is a pattern of inheritance in which an affected individual
has one copy of a mutant gene (one parent) and one normal gene on a pair of autosomal
chromosomes. Autosomal recessive diseases require that the individual have two copies of
the mutant gene. Individuals with autosomal dominant diseases are at 50% risk for
developing the disease.
6. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with chronic diuretic
use?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Explanation: Loop and thiazide diuretics cause potassium wasting, leading to hypokalemia.
This can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness.
7. A patient with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L. Which
ECG finding is expected?
A. U waves
B. Peaked T waves
C. Prolonged PR interval
D. ST-segment depression
Explanation: Hyperkalemia causes peaked (tall, tented) T waves on ECG. U waves are
associated with hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia can progress to life-threatening arrhythmias.
8. Which acid-base imbalance is expected in a patient with severe vomiting?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
Explanation: Severe vomiting leads to loss of gastric acid (hydrochloric acid), causing
metabolic alkalosis. The bicarbonate concentration increases relative to acid.
, 9. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has an arterial blood gas showing pH
7.25, HCO3 14 mEq/L, and PaCO2 30 mmHg. This indicates:
A. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
B. Metabolic acidosis without compensation
C. Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: A
Explanation: Low pH (7.25) and low HCO3 (14) indicate metabolic acidosis. The low
PaCO2 (30) indicates respiratory compensation (hyperventilation) to blow off CO2.
10. Which cellular adaptation is characterized by an increase in cell size?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Atrophy
D. Metaplasia
Explanation: Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size, often in response to increased
workload (e.g., cardiac muscle in hypertension). Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number.
11. Which cellular adaptation is characterized by an increase in cell number?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Atrophy
D. Metaplasia
Explanation: Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in a tissue, often in
response to hormonal stimulation or increased demand.
12. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) develops cor
pulmonale. This is an example of:
TEST BANK | WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
OA & PA TEST BANK (BRAND NEW!!)
1. An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is working with patients at an
eating disorder clinic. One patient is a 64-year-old woman with a long history of
anorexia nervosa. Which health promotion intervention is appropriate for this patient
considering complications of her disease process?
A. Encouraging high-impact aerobic exercise
B. Recommending daily calcium and vitamin D supplements
C. Prescribing a cholesterol-lowering medication
D. Ordering a screening colonoscopy and antidiarrheal medication
Explanation: This patient is at high risk of osteoporosis and stress fractures due to the
extensive history of anorexia nervosa. The body changes its hormone production in
response to low body weight, which negatively affects bone growth and strength. Calcium
and vitamin D supplementation helps mitigate bone loss.
2. A young adult patient and the patient's spouse are meeting with an APRN for a
fertility consultation. The patient's spouse is of African American descent. Which
genetic condition has the highest prevalence in African Americans?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Huntington disease
D. Tay-Sachs disease
Explanation: Sickle cell disease has an increased prevalence in African Americans (1 in
600). It is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a mutation in the hemoglobin beta
chain gene.
3. A patient with a basal metabolic index (BMI) of 29 is seen by an APRN to discuss
routine health maintenance. The patient reports a strong family history of colorectal
,cancer and has hypertension and normal cholesterol. Which primary
recommendation should the APRN make to decrease the risk of colorectal cancer?
A. Multiple vitamin with iron daily
B. Exercise of one hour daily
C. Low-fat dietary intake daily
D. Two glasses of red wine daily
Explanation: A high-fat diet raises the risk of colorectal cancer. It would be important for
this patient who has a familial risk (nonmodifiable) for colorectal cancer to decrease as
many modifiable risks as possible.
4. A patient undergoes surgical consultation for the removal of scar tissue. The
APRN explains that keloid formation occurs during which phase of healing?
A. Inflammation
B. Proliferation
C. Reconstruction
D. Hemostasis
Explanation: Keloid formation occurs during reconstruction and is a dysfunctional collagen
synthesis, which may involve excessive production of collagen, causing surface over-
healing and leading to a hypertrophic scar or keloid. A hypertrophic scar is raised but
remains within the original boundaries of the wound and tends to regress over time. A keloid
is a raised scar that extends beyond the original boundaries of the wound, invades
surrounding tissue, and is likely to recur after surgical removal.
5. An APRN is consulting with a patient during a scheduled well-child visit. The
mother informs the APRN that her father-in-law has been diagnosed with Huntington
disease. The mother, husband, and her male child may also have the disease. The
APRN explains the disease is autosomal dominant and age-dependent and suggests
testing for the mother, husband, and child. Which additional information should the
APRN provide for this type of transmission?
A. Both parents must carry the autosomal dominant gene for the child to have the condition
B. Men are more likely to exhibit autosomal dominant diseases than women
C. Autosomal dominant diseases usually have a 50% recurrence risk
D. Autosomal dominant diseases typically have no treatments
,Explanation: Autosomal dominant is a pattern of inheritance in which an affected individual
has one copy of a mutant gene (one parent) and one normal gene on a pair of autosomal
chromosomes. Autosomal recessive diseases require that the individual have two copies of
the mutant gene. Individuals with autosomal dominant diseases are at 50% risk for
developing the disease.
6. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with chronic diuretic
use?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Explanation: Loop and thiazide diuretics cause potassium wasting, leading to hypokalemia.
This can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness.
7. A patient with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L. Which
ECG finding is expected?
A. U waves
B. Peaked T waves
C. Prolonged PR interval
D. ST-segment depression
Explanation: Hyperkalemia causes peaked (tall, tented) T waves on ECG. U waves are
associated with hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia can progress to life-threatening arrhythmias.
8. Which acid-base imbalance is expected in a patient with severe vomiting?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
Explanation: Severe vomiting leads to loss of gastric acid (hydrochloric acid), causing
metabolic alkalosis. The bicarbonate concentration increases relative to acid.
, 9. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has an arterial blood gas showing pH
7.25, HCO3 14 mEq/L, and PaCO2 30 mmHg. This indicates:
A. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
B. Metabolic acidosis without compensation
C. Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: A
Explanation: Low pH (7.25) and low HCO3 (14) indicate metabolic acidosis. The low
PaCO2 (30) indicates respiratory compensation (hyperventilation) to blow off CO2.
10. Which cellular adaptation is characterized by an increase in cell size?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Atrophy
D. Metaplasia
Explanation: Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size, often in response to increased
workload (e.g., cardiac muscle in hypertension). Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number.
11. Which cellular adaptation is characterized by an increase in cell number?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Atrophy
D. Metaplasia
Explanation: Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in a tissue, often in
response to hormonal stimulation or increased demand.
12. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) develops cor
pulmonale. This is an example of:
