WGU D115 Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced
Practice Nurse Comprehensive Question Objective
Assessment with Answers & Rationales | Graded A+ |
Advanced Practice Competency
1. Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) Sex-linked recessive
D) Mitochondrial inheritance
Answer: C – Sex-linked recessive
Rationale: Sex-linked recessive disorders affect males more frequently than
females because males have only one X chromosome. If a male inherits an affected
X chromosome, the disease will be expressed, while females have a second X
chromosome that may provide a normal gene copy.
2. In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause?
A) Diabetes and hypertension
B) Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage
C) Cancer and heart disease
D) Asthma and autoimmune disorders
Answer: B – Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage
Rationale: Chromosomal abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual
disability and fetal miscarriage. They result from errors in chromosome number or
structure during cell division.
3. What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?
A) Blood pressure monitoring, glucose tolerance test, and urinalysis
B) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic
,screening (PGS)
C) Ultrasound, X-ray, and MRI
D) Genetic counseling, family history, and physical examination
Answer: B – Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and
preimplantation genetic screening (PGS)
Rationale: CVS is performed between weeks 11-14 of pregnancy, amniocentesis
between weeks 15-20, and PGS is performed on embryos prior to implantation
during in vitro fertilization. These are invasive prenatal diagnostic procedures.
4. Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having
a chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with
a missing gene?
A) Down syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) Cri du chat syndrome
D) Klinefelter syndrome
Answer: C – Cri du chat syndrome
Rationale: Cri du chat syndrome is caused by a deletion on the short arm of
chromosome 5. The name translates to "cry of the cat" due to the characteristic
high-pitched cry in affected infants.
5. Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may
provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may
not show symptoms of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the
father can give to a female). This describes which pattern of inheritance?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) X-linked recessive
D) X-linked dominant
Answer: C – X-linked recessive
,Rationale: In X-linked recessive inheritance, females are carriers because they
have two X chromosomes. Males are affected because they have only one X
chromosome. The father passes his X chromosome only to daughters, not to sons.
6. Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the
entire population?
A) Relative risk
B) Absolute risk
C) Attributable risk
D) Population risk
Answer: D – Population risk
Rationale: Population risk refers to the ratio of disease rate among the entire
population. Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases.
Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough
and accurate assessment.
7. What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair?
A) Genomic imprinting
B) X-inactivation
C) Epigenetic silencing
D) Gene mutation
Answer: A – Genomic imprinting
Rationale: Genomic imprinting refers to the silencing of one gene in a gene pair,
where the expression of a gene depends on whether it is inherited from the mother
or the father. This is an epigenetic phenomenon.
8. The silencing of a gene pair is the primary reason that some older adults
have impaired _____ health.
A) Cardiovascular
B) Inflammatory
, C) Neurological
D) Renal
Answer: B – Inflammatory
Rationale: Epigenetic changes, including gene silencing, contribute to impaired
inflammatory health in older adults. The underlying chronic illness exists as a
generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness as the body fights
against illness.
9. Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?
A) Neutrophils
B) Lymphocytes
C) Eosinophils
D) Macrophages
Answer: C – Eosinophils
Rationale: Eosinophils are the primary defense against parasitic infections. They
release toxic proteins and enzymes that damage parasites. Eosinophil counts are
typically elevated in parasitic infections and allergic reactions.
10. What is the primary function of the mitochondria?
A) Protein synthesis
B) ATP production
C) DNA replication
D) Cell division
Answer: B – ATP production
Rationale: The primary function of mitochondria is ATP (adenosine triphosphate)
production through oxidative phosphorylation. Mitochondria are often called the
"powerhouse of the cell."
11. Which type of necrosis is characterized by the formation of cheese-like
material?
Practice Nurse Comprehensive Question Objective
Assessment with Answers & Rationales | Graded A+ |
Advanced Practice Competency
1. Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) Sex-linked recessive
D) Mitochondrial inheritance
Answer: C – Sex-linked recessive
Rationale: Sex-linked recessive disorders affect males more frequently than
females because males have only one X chromosome. If a male inherits an affected
X chromosome, the disease will be expressed, while females have a second X
chromosome that may provide a normal gene copy.
2. In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause?
A) Diabetes and hypertension
B) Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage
C) Cancer and heart disease
D) Asthma and autoimmune disorders
Answer: B – Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage
Rationale: Chromosomal abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual
disability and fetal miscarriage. They result from errors in chromosome number or
structure during cell division.
3. What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?
A) Blood pressure monitoring, glucose tolerance test, and urinalysis
B) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic
,screening (PGS)
C) Ultrasound, X-ray, and MRI
D) Genetic counseling, family history, and physical examination
Answer: B – Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and
preimplantation genetic screening (PGS)
Rationale: CVS is performed between weeks 11-14 of pregnancy, amniocentesis
between weeks 15-20, and PGS is performed on embryos prior to implantation
during in vitro fertilization. These are invasive prenatal diagnostic procedures.
4. Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having
a chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with
a missing gene?
A) Down syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) Cri du chat syndrome
D) Klinefelter syndrome
Answer: C – Cri du chat syndrome
Rationale: Cri du chat syndrome is caused by a deletion on the short arm of
chromosome 5. The name translates to "cry of the cat" due to the characteristic
high-pitched cry in affected infants.
5. Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may
provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may
not show symptoms of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the
father can give to a female). This describes which pattern of inheritance?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) X-linked recessive
D) X-linked dominant
Answer: C – X-linked recessive
,Rationale: In X-linked recessive inheritance, females are carriers because they
have two X chromosomes. Males are affected because they have only one X
chromosome. The father passes his X chromosome only to daughters, not to sons.
6. Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the
entire population?
A) Relative risk
B) Absolute risk
C) Attributable risk
D) Population risk
Answer: D – Population risk
Rationale: Population risk refers to the ratio of disease rate among the entire
population. Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases.
Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough
and accurate assessment.
7. What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair?
A) Genomic imprinting
B) X-inactivation
C) Epigenetic silencing
D) Gene mutation
Answer: A – Genomic imprinting
Rationale: Genomic imprinting refers to the silencing of one gene in a gene pair,
where the expression of a gene depends on whether it is inherited from the mother
or the father. This is an epigenetic phenomenon.
8. The silencing of a gene pair is the primary reason that some older adults
have impaired _____ health.
A) Cardiovascular
B) Inflammatory
, C) Neurological
D) Renal
Answer: B – Inflammatory
Rationale: Epigenetic changes, including gene silencing, contribute to impaired
inflammatory health in older adults. The underlying chronic illness exists as a
generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness as the body fights
against illness.
9. Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?
A) Neutrophils
B) Lymphocytes
C) Eosinophils
D) Macrophages
Answer: C – Eosinophils
Rationale: Eosinophils are the primary defense against parasitic infections. They
release toxic proteins and enzymes that damage parasites. Eosinophil counts are
typically elevated in parasitic infections and allergic reactions.
10. What is the primary function of the mitochondria?
A) Protein synthesis
B) ATP production
C) DNA replication
D) Cell division
Answer: B – ATP production
Rationale: The primary function of mitochondria is ATP (adenosine triphosphate)
production through oxidative phosphorylation. Mitochondria are often called the
"powerhouse of the cell."
11. Which type of necrosis is characterized by the formation of cheese-like
material?
