NURS 629 Exam 1 V2 | NURS 629 Peds |
Actual Q&A with Rationale (NURS629
Exam 1) | Maryville University
1. A 24-month-old child is seen for a well-child examination. According to developmental
milestones, which of the following tasks should the nurse practitioner expect the child to
perform? (Select All That Apply)
A. Runs well
B. Walks up and down stairs one step at a time
C. Builds a tower of six to seven blocks
D. Turns doorknobs
E. Points to named body parts
F. Copies a square
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
By 24 months, children typically develop the gross motor skill to run well and navigate
stairs one step at a time. Fine motor skills at this age include building a tower of six or more
blocks and manipulating doorknobs. It is also expected that they can identify body parts
when asked. Copying a square is a milestone typically achieved at age 4.
,2. An infant presents with non-bilious, projectile vomiting after feedings and a palpable olive-
shaped mass in the midepigastrium. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Gastroesophageal reflux
B. Pyloric stenosis
C. Intussusception
D. Hirschsprung disease
Correct Answer: B
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis typically presents in infants aged 3 to 6 weeks with
projectile vomiting. The clinical finding of a palpable olive-shaped mass is pathognomonic
for this condition. Immediate ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic imaging to confirm the
hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle.
3. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for a child diagnosed with
mild croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis) who has a barky cough but no stridor at rest?
A. A single dose of oral dexamethasone
B. Nebulized epinephrine
C. Inhaled albuterol
D. Antibiotics
Correct Answer: A
, Croup is most commonly viral, meaning antibiotics are not indicated. Dexamethasone is
the gold standard for reducing airway inflammation even in mild cases to prevent
progression. Nebulized epinephrine is reserved for patients exhibiting stridor at rest or
significant respiratory distress.
4. The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 15-year-old female for secondary amenorrhea. Which
of the following should be the first diagnostic test ordered?
A. Pregnancy test (hCG)
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C. Pelvic ultrasound
D. Prolactin level
Correct Answer: A
Pregnancy is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in adolescents. A
pregnancy test must be performed first to rule this out before proceeding with complex
endocrine evaluations. Other tests like FSH or prolactin are indicated only if the hCG is
negative.
5. A 10-year-old child presents with a ‘slapped-cheek’ appearance and a lace-like rash on the
trunk and extremities. What is the causative agent?
A. Group A Streptococcus
B. Human Herpesvirus 6
C. Parvovirus B19
Actual Q&A with Rationale (NURS629
Exam 1) | Maryville University
1. A 24-month-old child is seen for a well-child examination. According to developmental
milestones, which of the following tasks should the nurse practitioner expect the child to
perform? (Select All That Apply)
A. Runs well
B. Walks up and down stairs one step at a time
C. Builds a tower of six to seven blocks
D. Turns doorknobs
E. Points to named body parts
F. Copies a square
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
By 24 months, children typically develop the gross motor skill to run well and navigate
stairs one step at a time. Fine motor skills at this age include building a tower of six or more
blocks and manipulating doorknobs. It is also expected that they can identify body parts
when asked. Copying a square is a milestone typically achieved at age 4.
,2. An infant presents with non-bilious, projectile vomiting after feedings and a palpable olive-
shaped mass in the midepigastrium. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Gastroesophageal reflux
B. Pyloric stenosis
C. Intussusception
D. Hirschsprung disease
Correct Answer: B
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis typically presents in infants aged 3 to 6 weeks with
projectile vomiting. The clinical finding of a palpable olive-shaped mass is pathognomonic
for this condition. Immediate ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic imaging to confirm the
hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle.
3. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for a child diagnosed with
mild croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis) who has a barky cough but no stridor at rest?
A. A single dose of oral dexamethasone
B. Nebulized epinephrine
C. Inhaled albuterol
D. Antibiotics
Correct Answer: A
, Croup is most commonly viral, meaning antibiotics are not indicated. Dexamethasone is
the gold standard for reducing airway inflammation even in mild cases to prevent
progression. Nebulized epinephrine is reserved for patients exhibiting stridor at rest or
significant respiratory distress.
4. The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 15-year-old female for secondary amenorrhea. Which
of the following should be the first diagnostic test ordered?
A. Pregnancy test (hCG)
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C. Pelvic ultrasound
D. Prolactin level
Correct Answer: A
Pregnancy is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in adolescents. A
pregnancy test must be performed first to rule this out before proceeding with complex
endocrine evaluations. Other tests like FSH or prolactin are indicated only if the hCG is
negative.
5. A 10-year-old child presents with a ‘slapped-cheek’ appearance and a lace-like rash on the
trunk and extremities. What is the causative agent?
A. Group A Streptococcus
B. Human Herpesvirus 6
C. Parvovirus B19
