NU 661 Final Exam V2 | NU 661 Primary
Care of Childbearing Woman | Actual Q&A
with Rationale (NU661 Final Exam) | Regis
1. Which of the following findings are categorized as presumptive signs of pregnancy? Select
all that apply.
A. Amenorrhea
B. Breast tenderness
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Goodell sign
E. Fatigue
F. Quickening
Correct Answer: A, B, C, E, F
Presumptive signs are subjective changes experienced by the woman that could be caused
by pregnancy or other conditions. These include amenorrhea, breast changes, nausea,
fatigue, and the sensation of fetal movement known as quickening. In contrast, signs like
Goodell’s sign or Hegar’s sign are considered probable signs because they are objective
findings observed by a clinician.
,2. A patient’s last menstrual period (LMP) began on June 10. According to Naegele’s rule,
what is her estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A. March 3
B. April 17
C. March 10
D. March 17
Correct Answer: D
Naegele’s rule is a standard method for calculating the EDD by taking the first day of the
LMP, subtracting three months, and adding seven days and one year. For a June 10 LMP,
subtracting three months leads to March, and adding seven days leads to March 17. This
calculation assumes a standard 28-day menstrual cycle and remains the primary clinical
tool for initial dating.
3. Which objective findings are classified as probable signs of pregnancy? Select all that apply.
A. Chadwick sign
B. Hegar sign
C. Positive urine pregnancy test
D. Braxton Hicks contractions
E. Fetal heart tones by Doppler
F. Ballottement
,Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, F
Probable signs are objective findings observed by an examiner that strongly suggest
pregnancy but are not diagnostic. These include anatomical changes like Chadwick’s sign
(bluish tint to cervix) and Hegar’s sign (softening of the lower uterine segment), as well as
biochemical tests like hCG detection. Fetal heart tones are a positive sign of pregnancy, as
they provide absolute proof of a live fetus.
4. At 20 weeks gestation, the nurse practitioner expects the fundal height to be at which
anatomical landmark?
A. Umbilicus
B. Symphysis pubis
C. Xiphoid process
D. Midway between symphysis and umbilicus
Correct Answer: A
In a singleton pregnancy, the fundal height measured in centimeters typically matches the
weeks of gestation between 20 and 36 weeks. At 20 weeks, the top of the uterus is
generally felt at the level of the umbilicus. Discrepancies of more than 2 cm in fundal height
require further evaluation via ultrasound to assess fetal growth or amniotic fluid volume.
5. A pregnant patient with a pre-pregnancy Body Mass Index (BMI) of 22 kg/m² should be
advised to gain how much weight during a singleton pregnancy?
A. 25 to 35 pounds
, B. 15 to 25 pounds
C. 11 to 20 pounds
D. 28 to 40 pounds
Correct Answer: A
Weight gain recommendations in pregnancy are tailored to the patient’s pre-pregnancy
BMI to optimize maternal and neonatal outcomes. For women with a normal BMI (18.5–
24.9), the Institute of Medicine recommends a total gain of 25 to 35 pounds. Insufficient
weight gain is associated with small-for-gestational-age infants, while excessive gain
increases the risk of macrosomia and cesarean delivery.
6. Which of the following clinical findings qualify as ‘severe features’ of preeclampsia? Select
all that apply.
A. Platelet count < 100,000/microliter
B. Serum creatinine > 1.1 mg/dL or doubling of creatinine
C. Blood pressure 160/110 mmHg or higher on two occasions
D. Proteinuria of 300 mg in 24 hours
E. Cerebral or visual disturbances
F. Pulmonary edema
G. Elevated liver enzymes to twice normal concentration
Correct Answer: A, B, C, E, F, G
Care of Childbearing Woman | Actual Q&A
with Rationale (NU661 Final Exam) | Regis
1. Which of the following findings are categorized as presumptive signs of pregnancy? Select
all that apply.
A. Amenorrhea
B. Breast tenderness
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Goodell sign
E. Fatigue
F. Quickening
Correct Answer: A, B, C, E, F
Presumptive signs are subjective changes experienced by the woman that could be caused
by pregnancy or other conditions. These include amenorrhea, breast changes, nausea,
fatigue, and the sensation of fetal movement known as quickening. In contrast, signs like
Goodell’s sign or Hegar’s sign are considered probable signs because they are objective
findings observed by a clinician.
,2. A patient’s last menstrual period (LMP) began on June 10. According to Naegele’s rule,
what is her estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A. March 3
B. April 17
C. March 10
D. March 17
Correct Answer: D
Naegele’s rule is a standard method for calculating the EDD by taking the first day of the
LMP, subtracting three months, and adding seven days and one year. For a June 10 LMP,
subtracting three months leads to March, and adding seven days leads to March 17. This
calculation assumes a standard 28-day menstrual cycle and remains the primary clinical
tool for initial dating.
3. Which objective findings are classified as probable signs of pregnancy? Select all that apply.
A. Chadwick sign
B. Hegar sign
C. Positive urine pregnancy test
D. Braxton Hicks contractions
E. Fetal heart tones by Doppler
F. Ballottement
,Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, F
Probable signs are objective findings observed by an examiner that strongly suggest
pregnancy but are not diagnostic. These include anatomical changes like Chadwick’s sign
(bluish tint to cervix) and Hegar’s sign (softening of the lower uterine segment), as well as
biochemical tests like hCG detection. Fetal heart tones are a positive sign of pregnancy, as
they provide absolute proof of a live fetus.
4. At 20 weeks gestation, the nurse practitioner expects the fundal height to be at which
anatomical landmark?
A. Umbilicus
B. Symphysis pubis
C. Xiphoid process
D. Midway between symphysis and umbilicus
Correct Answer: A
In a singleton pregnancy, the fundal height measured in centimeters typically matches the
weeks of gestation between 20 and 36 weeks. At 20 weeks, the top of the uterus is
generally felt at the level of the umbilicus. Discrepancies of more than 2 cm in fundal height
require further evaluation via ultrasound to assess fetal growth or amniotic fluid volume.
5. A pregnant patient with a pre-pregnancy Body Mass Index (BMI) of 22 kg/m² should be
advised to gain how much weight during a singleton pregnancy?
A. 25 to 35 pounds
, B. 15 to 25 pounds
C. 11 to 20 pounds
D. 28 to 40 pounds
Correct Answer: A
Weight gain recommendations in pregnancy are tailored to the patient’s pre-pregnancy
BMI to optimize maternal and neonatal outcomes. For women with a normal BMI (18.5–
24.9), the Institute of Medicine recommends a total gain of 25 to 35 pounds. Insufficient
weight gain is associated with small-for-gestational-age infants, while excessive gain
increases the risk of macrosomia and cesarean delivery.
6. Which of the following clinical findings qualify as ‘severe features’ of preeclampsia? Select
all that apply.
A. Platelet count < 100,000/microliter
B. Serum creatinine > 1.1 mg/dL or doubling of creatinine
C. Blood pressure 160/110 mmHg or higher on two occasions
D. Proteinuria of 300 mg in 24 hours
E. Cerebral or visual disturbances
F. Pulmonary edema
G. Elevated liver enzymes to twice normal concentration
Correct Answer: A, B, C, E, F, G
