1
CBIC CIC PRACTICE EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS
Medical intervention factors that affect risk of infection - correct-answer -
indwelling devices, staffing ratio, lengths of stay, duration of invasive procedures,
medications, # of exams by providers, type of institution, and
knowledge/experience of providers
environmental intervention factors that affect risk of infection - correct-answer -
disinfectant type used, contact with animals, hand hygiene
anatomical/phys factors that affect risk of infection - correct-answer - preexisting
diseases, trauma, malignancies, age, gender, and nutritional status
DMAIC - correct-answer - D=define customers, project boundaries, and processes
M=measure performance
A=analyze data to identify causes of variation, gaps in performance, and prioritize
actions
I=improve the process
C=control the process to prevent reverting
, 2
What should an effective surveillance program be able to provide? - correct-
answer - Detection of infections and injuries, identify trends, identify risk factors
associated with infections and other AEs detect outbreaks and clusters, assess the
overall effectiveness of the infection control and prevention program and
demonstrate changes in proactive and processes that lead to better outcomes
Define point prevalence - correct-answer - number of persons ill on the date
divided by the population on that date.
Define attack rate - correct-answer - Number of people at risk in whom a certain
illness develops / (divided by) / Total number of people at risk
Define prevalence - correct-answer - fraction of a population having a specific
disease at a given time
Define incidence - correct-answer - number of new cases of a disease divided by
the number of persons at risk for the disease.
Type of specimen for C. diff - correct-answer - liquid stool is required
When to suspect C. diff infection? - correct-answer - when 3 or more
unformed/watery stool in 24 hrs occurs
, 3
Relative Risk (RR) - correct-answer - Used in cohort studies to determine how
strongly a risk factor is associated with an outcome.
1 is the null= no significance of the association between exposure and adverse
event
P(X infection or exposed)/P(Y infection or unexposed) = RR
Details of control chart - correct-answer - central line = the ave of data pts
x axis = time
y axis = rate/count
may be upper control/lower control limit lines and +/- 3 SD lines
Directly observed therapy (DOT) - correct-answer - requires that a health care
provider directly observe the patient swallowing the pills, whether it is in the
hospital, office, or home care setting
the best method for TB regimen, intermittent therapy, MDRO, high risk for
noncompliance (drug abusers/homeless)
Hill's Criteria of Causality - correct-answer - 1) strength of association- relationship
between casual factor and disease outcome
2) consistency of finding- associations are repeated
3) specificity of association- very specific cause
4) temporality- cause must be before the effect
5) biological gradient- dose and response relationship, more exposure causes
higher risk
6) biologic or theoretical plausibility- has to make biological sense
7) coherence with the established knowledge- established knowledge should not
conflict with findings
CBIC CIC PRACTICE EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS
Medical intervention factors that affect risk of infection - correct-answer -
indwelling devices, staffing ratio, lengths of stay, duration of invasive procedures,
medications, # of exams by providers, type of institution, and
knowledge/experience of providers
environmental intervention factors that affect risk of infection - correct-answer -
disinfectant type used, contact with animals, hand hygiene
anatomical/phys factors that affect risk of infection - correct-answer - preexisting
diseases, trauma, malignancies, age, gender, and nutritional status
DMAIC - correct-answer - D=define customers, project boundaries, and processes
M=measure performance
A=analyze data to identify causes of variation, gaps in performance, and prioritize
actions
I=improve the process
C=control the process to prevent reverting
, 2
What should an effective surveillance program be able to provide? - correct-
answer - Detection of infections and injuries, identify trends, identify risk factors
associated with infections and other AEs detect outbreaks and clusters, assess the
overall effectiveness of the infection control and prevention program and
demonstrate changes in proactive and processes that lead to better outcomes
Define point prevalence - correct-answer - number of persons ill on the date
divided by the population on that date.
Define attack rate - correct-answer - Number of people at risk in whom a certain
illness develops / (divided by) / Total number of people at risk
Define prevalence - correct-answer - fraction of a population having a specific
disease at a given time
Define incidence - correct-answer - number of new cases of a disease divided by
the number of persons at risk for the disease.
Type of specimen for C. diff - correct-answer - liquid stool is required
When to suspect C. diff infection? - correct-answer - when 3 or more
unformed/watery stool in 24 hrs occurs
, 3
Relative Risk (RR) - correct-answer - Used in cohort studies to determine how
strongly a risk factor is associated with an outcome.
1 is the null= no significance of the association between exposure and adverse
event
P(X infection or exposed)/P(Y infection or unexposed) = RR
Details of control chart - correct-answer - central line = the ave of data pts
x axis = time
y axis = rate/count
may be upper control/lower control limit lines and +/- 3 SD lines
Directly observed therapy (DOT) - correct-answer - requires that a health care
provider directly observe the patient swallowing the pills, whether it is in the
hospital, office, or home care setting
the best method for TB regimen, intermittent therapy, MDRO, high risk for
noncompliance (drug abusers/homeless)
Hill's Criteria of Causality - correct-answer - 1) strength of association- relationship
between casual factor and disease outcome
2) consistency of finding- associations are repeated
3) specificity of association- very specific cause
4) temporality- cause must be before the effect
5) biological gradient- dose and response relationship, more exposure causes
higher risk
6) biologic or theoretical plausibility- has to make biological sense
7) coherence with the established knowledge- established knowledge should not
conflict with findings
