FAsMA – Fellow of the Aerospace Medical Association
| Comprehensive Study Guide, Practice Exam,
Questions & Answers, Aerospace Medicine Exam Prep,
Aviation Medicine, Flight Physiology, Aeromedical
Certification, Human Performance, Space Medicine,
Occupational Health, Aviation Safety, Clinical
Decision-Making, Detailed Rationales, Complete
Review
Question 1: According to the Aerospace Medical Association (AsMA) Fellowship
guidelines, what is the minimum number of total points generally required for a
candidate to be selected as a Fellow?
A. 100 points
B. 130 points
C. 150 points
D. 200 points
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 130 points
Rationale:The AsMA Fellows Evaluation Committee (FEC) uses a points-based system
to evaluate candidates for Fellowship. To be selected, a candidate must achieve a
minimum total score of 130 points based on their activities and contributions . This is
considered the baseline threshold for approval, after which the application undergoes
final review .
Question 2: Which category is NOT one of the four main point categories used by
the AsMA Fellows Evaluation Committee to assess candidates for Fellowship?
A. Activities in Aerospace Points
B. Communication Points
C. Clinical Practice and Patient Care Points
D. Extreme Environments & Related Activities Points
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Clinical Practice and Patient Care Points
Rationale:The formal point system for AsMA Fellowship is divided into four distinct
categories for evaluation: Activities in Aerospace Points, Communication Points,
Education & Experience in Aerospace Medicine Points, and Extreme Environments &
Related Activities Points . While clinical practice is an important part of a member's
career, it is not a standalone category in this specific point system.
Question 3: The specific term for the phenomenon observed in long-duration
spaceflight where astronauts experience optic disc edema, globe flattening, and a
hyperopic shift is known as:
,A. Spaceflight Associated Neuro-Ocular Syndrome (SANS)
B. Visual Impairment Intracranial Pressure (VIIP) syndrome
C. Orthostatic Intolerance
D. Space Adaptation Syndrome
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Spaceflight Associated Neuro-Ocular Syndrome (SANS)
Rationale:Spaceflight Associated Neuro-Ocular Syndrome (SANS) is a significant and
currently active area of research in clinical aerospace medicine. It is characterized by a
constellation of findings in astronauts, including optic disc edema, choroidal folds,
globe flattening, and a hyperopic shift in refractive error . It was previously referred to as
Visual Impairment Intracranial Pressure (VIIP) syndrome.
Question 4: In the context of operational aerospace medicine, what does the
abbreviation "SANS" stand for?
A. Spaceflight Associated Neuro-Ocular Syndrome
B. Standard Aviation Navigation System
C. Sensory Augmentation and Neurological Stability
D. Systemic Aerobic Nutritional Supplement
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Spaceflight Associated Neuro-Ocular Syndrome
Rationale:SANS is the standard acronym used in aerospace medicine to describe
Spaceflight Associated Neuro-Ocular Syndrome. This clinical entity is a key topic within
the Clinical Aerospace Medicine domain, requiring flight surgeons and researchers to
understand its pathophysiology, monitoring, and potential countermeasures .
Question 5: Which of the following is the primary gas responsible for
decompression sickness (DCS) due to bubble formation in tissues during rapid
ascent?
A. Oxygen (O2)
B. Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
C. Nitrogen (N2)
D. Argon (Ar)
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Nitrogen (N2)
Rationale:Henry's Law states that the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is
proportional to its partial pressure. Under increased pressure (e.g., underwater or in a
pressurized aircraft), nitrogen dissolves into body tissues. During rapid ascent and a
corresponding decrease in ambient pressure, the nitrogen comes out of solution,
forming bubbles that can cause DCS . Oxygen is metabolically consumed, and CO2 is a
waste product, neither of which is the primary culprit for bubble formation.
,Question 6: The preferred and most effective immediate operational
countermeasure for a sudden loss of cabin pressure at 25,000 feet is:
A. Donning a 100% oxygen mask
B. Performing the Valsalva maneuver
C. Initiating an emergency descent to 10,000 feet
D. Deploying the aircraft's emergency oxygen system
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Initiating an emergency descent to 10,000 feet
Rationale:While supplemental oxygen is critical, the definitive operational
countermeasure to hypoxia caused by rapid decompression is to descend the aircraft to
an altitude where the ambient partial pressure of oxygen is sufficient for survival,
generally below 10,000 feet . This addresses the root cause of the hypoxia by increasing
the ambient pressure and, consequently, the partial pressure of oxygen.
Question 7: The inner ear structure responsible for detecting linear acceleration
and head tilt relative to gravity is the:
A. Cochlea
B. Semicircular canals
C. Organ of Corti
D. Otolith organs (utricle and saccule)
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Otolith organs (utricle and saccule)
Rationale:The vestibular apparatus of the inner ear comprises two main functional
parts: the semicircular canals, which detect rotational (angular) acceleration, and the
otolith organs, which detect linear acceleration and static head position (tilt) relative to
gravity . The cochlea is responsible for hearing.
Question 8: A pilot experiencing rapid forward acceleration (Gx) may incorrectly
perceive this as a pitch-up attitude, a dangerous illusion known as the:
A. Somatogyral illusion
B. Coriolis illusion
C. Somatogravic illusion
D. Leans
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Somatogravic illusion
Rationale:The somatogravic illusion is a false perception of pitch attitude caused by
linear acceleration, such as during takeoff. The otolith organs sense the forward
acceleration as a tilt backward, leading the pilot to believe the aircraft is pitching up.
This can cause them to push the nose down dangerously .
, Question 9: What visual standard is required for a private pilot certificate in the
United States?
A. 20/20 unaided vision in one eye, correctable to 20/40
B. 20/40 distance vision in each eye, correctable to 20/20 with glasses
C. 20/100 distance vision, correctable to 20/30
D. No distant vision requirement, only color vision
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 20/40 distance vision in each eye, correctable to 20/20 with
glasses
Rationale:Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) regulations mandate that an applicant
for a private pilot certificate must have a distant visual acuity of at least 20/40 in each
eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. The vision must be correctable to
20/20 in each eye .
Question 10: Which type of hypoxia results from a failure of body tissues to utilize
oxygen due to the presence of a toxic substance, such as cyanide?
A. Hypoxic hypoxia
B. Anemic hypoxia
C. Stagnant hypoxia
D. Histotoxic hypoxia
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Histotoxic hypoxia
Rationale:The four types of hypoxia are classified by their cause. Hypoxic hypoxia is a
low partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. Anemic hypoxia is a reduced oxygen-
carrying capacity of the blood. Stagnant hypoxia is a failure of circulation to deliver
oxygen. Histotoxic hypoxia is the inability of the tissues to use the oxygen delivered to
them, often due to toxins like alcohol, narcotics, or cyanide .
Question 11: The primary mechanism of action of an anti-G suit is to prevent G-
induced loss of consciousness (G-LOC) by:
A. Directly stimulating the heart to increase its output
B. Inflating bladders to compress the lower body and maintain venous return
C. Providing 100% oxygen to the pilot's mask
D. Reducing the total G-forces experienced by the pilot
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Inflating bladders to compress the lower body and maintain
venous return
Rationale:An anti-G suit functions by providing external pressure to the legs and
abdomen. During high +Gz acceleration, this compression helps counteract the pooling
| Comprehensive Study Guide, Practice Exam,
Questions & Answers, Aerospace Medicine Exam Prep,
Aviation Medicine, Flight Physiology, Aeromedical
Certification, Human Performance, Space Medicine,
Occupational Health, Aviation Safety, Clinical
Decision-Making, Detailed Rationales, Complete
Review
Question 1: According to the Aerospace Medical Association (AsMA) Fellowship
guidelines, what is the minimum number of total points generally required for a
candidate to be selected as a Fellow?
A. 100 points
B. 130 points
C. 150 points
D. 200 points
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 130 points
Rationale:The AsMA Fellows Evaluation Committee (FEC) uses a points-based system
to evaluate candidates for Fellowship. To be selected, a candidate must achieve a
minimum total score of 130 points based on their activities and contributions . This is
considered the baseline threshold for approval, after which the application undergoes
final review .
Question 2: Which category is NOT one of the four main point categories used by
the AsMA Fellows Evaluation Committee to assess candidates for Fellowship?
A. Activities in Aerospace Points
B. Communication Points
C. Clinical Practice and Patient Care Points
D. Extreme Environments & Related Activities Points
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Clinical Practice and Patient Care Points
Rationale:The formal point system for AsMA Fellowship is divided into four distinct
categories for evaluation: Activities in Aerospace Points, Communication Points,
Education & Experience in Aerospace Medicine Points, and Extreme Environments &
Related Activities Points . While clinical practice is an important part of a member's
career, it is not a standalone category in this specific point system.
Question 3: The specific term for the phenomenon observed in long-duration
spaceflight where astronauts experience optic disc edema, globe flattening, and a
hyperopic shift is known as:
,A. Spaceflight Associated Neuro-Ocular Syndrome (SANS)
B. Visual Impairment Intracranial Pressure (VIIP) syndrome
C. Orthostatic Intolerance
D. Space Adaptation Syndrome
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Spaceflight Associated Neuro-Ocular Syndrome (SANS)
Rationale:Spaceflight Associated Neuro-Ocular Syndrome (SANS) is a significant and
currently active area of research in clinical aerospace medicine. It is characterized by a
constellation of findings in astronauts, including optic disc edema, choroidal folds,
globe flattening, and a hyperopic shift in refractive error . It was previously referred to as
Visual Impairment Intracranial Pressure (VIIP) syndrome.
Question 4: In the context of operational aerospace medicine, what does the
abbreviation "SANS" stand for?
A. Spaceflight Associated Neuro-Ocular Syndrome
B. Standard Aviation Navigation System
C. Sensory Augmentation and Neurological Stability
D. Systemic Aerobic Nutritional Supplement
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Spaceflight Associated Neuro-Ocular Syndrome
Rationale:SANS is the standard acronym used in aerospace medicine to describe
Spaceflight Associated Neuro-Ocular Syndrome. This clinical entity is a key topic within
the Clinical Aerospace Medicine domain, requiring flight surgeons and researchers to
understand its pathophysiology, monitoring, and potential countermeasures .
Question 5: Which of the following is the primary gas responsible for
decompression sickness (DCS) due to bubble formation in tissues during rapid
ascent?
A. Oxygen (O2)
B. Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
C. Nitrogen (N2)
D. Argon (Ar)
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Nitrogen (N2)
Rationale:Henry's Law states that the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is
proportional to its partial pressure. Under increased pressure (e.g., underwater or in a
pressurized aircraft), nitrogen dissolves into body tissues. During rapid ascent and a
corresponding decrease in ambient pressure, the nitrogen comes out of solution,
forming bubbles that can cause DCS . Oxygen is metabolically consumed, and CO2 is a
waste product, neither of which is the primary culprit for bubble formation.
,Question 6: The preferred and most effective immediate operational
countermeasure for a sudden loss of cabin pressure at 25,000 feet is:
A. Donning a 100% oxygen mask
B. Performing the Valsalva maneuver
C. Initiating an emergency descent to 10,000 feet
D. Deploying the aircraft's emergency oxygen system
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Initiating an emergency descent to 10,000 feet
Rationale:While supplemental oxygen is critical, the definitive operational
countermeasure to hypoxia caused by rapid decompression is to descend the aircraft to
an altitude where the ambient partial pressure of oxygen is sufficient for survival,
generally below 10,000 feet . This addresses the root cause of the hypoxia by increasing
the ambient pressure and, consequently, the partial pressure of oxygen.
Question 7: The inner ear structure responsible for detecting linear acceleration
and head tilt relative to gravity is the:
A. Cochlea
B. Semicircular canals
C. Organ of Corti
D. Otolith organs (utricle and saccule)
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Otolith organs (utricle and saccule)
Rationale:The vestibular apparatus of the inner ear comprises two main functional
parts: the semicircular canals, which detect rotational (angular) acceleration, and the
otolith organs, which detect linear acceleration and static head position (tilt) relative to
gravity . The cochlea is responsible for hearing.
Question 8: A pilot experiencing rapid forward acceleration (Gx) may incorrectly
perceive this as a pitch-up attitude, a dangerous illusion known as the:
A. Somatogyral illusion
B. Coriolis illusion
C. Somatogravic illusion
D. Leans
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Somatogravic illusion
Rationale:The somatogravic illusion is a false perception of pitch attitude caused by
linear acceleration, such as during takeoff. The otolith organs sense the forward
acceleration as a tilt backward, leading the pilot to believe the aircraft is pitching up.
This can cause them to push the nose down dangerously .
, Question 9: What visual standard is required for a private pilot certificate in the
United States?
A. 20/20 unaided vision in one eye, correctable to 20/40
B. 20/40 distance vision in each eye, correctable to 20/20 with glasses
C. 20/100 distance vision, correctable to 20/30
D. No distant vision requirement, only color vision
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 20/40 distance vision in each eye, correctable to 20/20 with
glasses
Rationale:Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) regulations mandate that an applicant
for a private pilot certificate must have a distant visual acuity of at least 20/40 in each
eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. The vision must be correctable to
20/20 in each eye .
Question 10: Which type of hypoxia results from a failure of body tissues to utilize
oxygen due to the presence of a toxic substance, such as cyanide?
A. Hypoxic hypoxia
B. Anemic hypoxia
C. Stagnant hypoxia
D. Histotoxic hypoxia
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Histotoxic hypoxia
Rationale:The four types of hypoxia are classified by their cause. Hypoxic hypoxia is a
low partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. Anemic hypoxia is a reduced oxygen-
carrying capacity of the blood. Stagnant hypoxia is a failure of circulation to deliver
oxygen. Histotoxic hypoxia is the inability of the tissues to use the oxygen delivered to
them, often due to toxins like alcohol, narcotics, or cyanide .
Question 11: The primary mechanism of action of an anti-G suit is to prevent G-
induced loss of consciousness (G-LOC) by:
A. Directly stimulating the heart to increase its output
B. Inflating bladders to compress the lower body and maintain venous return
C. Providing 100% oxygen to the pilot's mask
D. Reducing the total G-forces experienced by the pilot
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Inflating bladders to compress the lower body and maintain
venous return
Rationale:An anti-G suit functions by providing external pressure to the legs and
abdomen. During high +Gz acceleration, this compression helps counteract the pooling
