NURS 665 Exam 3 V1 | NURS 665
Psychiatric Mental Health Diagnosis and
Management III | Actual Q&A with
Rationale (NURS665 Exam 3) | Maryville
University
1. A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with ADHD, combined type. Which of the following is
considered a first-line pharmacological treatment according to clinical guidelines?
A. Atomoxetine
B. Guanfacine
C. Methylphenidate
D. Bupropion
Answer: C
Rationale: Stimulants such as methylphenidate or amphetamines are considered first-line
treatments for pediatric ADHD. They have the most robust evidence for efficacy in reducing
symptoms of inattention and hyperactivity. Non-stimulants like Atomoxetine are typically
reserved for patients who fail or cannot tolerate stimulants.
2. When assessing an elderly patient for depression, the PMHNP notes symptoms that mimic
cognitive impairment. This condition is often referred to as:
A. Pseudodementia
,B. Delirium
C. Vascular Dementia
D. Sun-downing syndrome
Answer: A
Rationale: Pseudodementia is a clinical presentation where depression in the elderly
manifests as significant cognitive deficits. Unlike true dementia, these cognitive symptoms
often improve once the underlying mood disorder is effectively treated. Patients with
pseudodementia are often very distressed by their cognitive failings, whereas those with
true dementia may be less aware of them.
3. Which neurodevelopmental disorder is characterized by persistent deficits in social
communication and social interaction across multiple contexts?
A. Autism Spectrum Disorder
B. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder
C. Social Anxiety Disorder
D. Specific Learning Disorder
Answer: A
Rationale: Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) involves core deficits in social communication
and restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. These symptoms must be present in the
, early developmental period for a diagnosis. The severity is based on the level of support
required for social communication and restricted behaviors.
4. An 8-year-old child presents with chronic, severe irritability and frequent temper outbursts
that are out of proportion to the situation. Which diagnosis should be considered?
A. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
B. Bipolar I Disorder
C. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
D. Conduct Disorder
Answer: A
Rationale: Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD) was introduced to address
the over-diagnosis of pediatric bipolar disorder. It is characterized by severe temper
outbursts and a persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts. The diagnosis
cannot be made before age 6 or after age 18.
5. Which medication is an FDA-approved NMDA receptor antagonist used for the treatment
of moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease?
A. Donepezil
B. Memantine
C. Rivastigmine
D. Galantamine
Psychiatric Mental Health Diagnosis and
Management III | Actual Q&A with
Rationale (NURS665 Exam 3) | Maryville
University
1. A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with ADHD, combined type. Which of the following is
considered a first-line pharmacological treatment according to clinical guidelines?
A. Atomoxetine
B. Guanfacine
C. Methylphenidate
D. Bupropion
Answer: C
Rationale: Stimulants such as methylphenidate or amphetamines are considered first-line
treatments for pediatric ADHD. They have the most robust evidence for efficacy in reducing
symptoms of inattention and hyperactivity. Non-stimulants like Atomoxetine are typically
reserved for patients who fail or cannot tolerate stimulants.
2. When assessing an elderly patient for depression, the PMHNP notes symptoms that mimic
cognitive impairment. This condition is often referred to as:
A. Pseudodementia
,B. Delirium
C. Vascular Dementia
D. Sun-downing syndrome
Answer: A
Rationale: Pseudodementia is a clinical presentation where depression in the elderly
manifests as significant cognitive deficits. Unlike true dementia, these cognitive symptoms
often improve once the underlying mood disorder is effectively treated. Patients with
pseudodementia are often very distressed by their cognitive failings, whereas those with
true dementia may be less aware of them.
3. Which neurodevelopmental disorder is characterized by persistent deficits in social
communication and social interaction across multiple contexts?
A. Autism Spectrum Disorder
B. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder
C. Social Anxiety Disorder
D. Specific Learning Disorder
Answer: A
Rationale: Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) involves core deficits in social communication
and restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. These symptoms must be present in the
, early developmental period for a diagnosis. The severity is based on the level of support
required for social communication and restricted behaviors.
4. An 8-year-old child presents with chronic, severe irritability and frequent temper outbursts
that are out of proportion to the situation. Which diagnosis should be considered?
A. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
B. Bipolar I Disorder
C. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
D. Conduct Disorder
Answer: A
Rationale: Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD) was introduced to address
the over-diagnosis of pediatric bipolar disorder. It is characterized by severe temper
outbursts and a persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts. The diagnosis
cannot be made before age 6 or after age 18.
5. Which medication is an FDA-approved NMDA receptor antagonist used for the treatment
of moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease?
A. Donepezil
B. Memantine
C. Rivastigmine
D. Galantamine
