NURS 305 Final Exam V1 | NURS 305
Pharmacology | Actual Q&A with Rationale
(NURS305 Final Exam) | Liberty University
1. A nurse is monitoring a patient receiving Digoxin for heart failure. Which clinical
manifestation should the nurse identify as an early sign of digoxin toxicity?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Tachycardia
C. Increased urinary output
D. Anorexia and nausea
Answer: D
Rationale: Early signs of digoxin toxicity often involve gastrointestinal disturbances such
as anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Visual disturbances, such as yellow-green halos, and
cardiac arrhythmias may follow these initial symptoms. It is critical for the nurse to assess
the apical pulse for one full minute and monitor potassium levels, as hypokalemia increases
the risk of toxicity.
2. A patient is prescribed Furosemide (Lasix) for the management of peripheral edema. Which
laboratory value is the highest priority for the nurse to monitor?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum calcium
,C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Serum potassium
Answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that causes significant excretion of
potassium in the urine. Hypokalemia is a life-threatening side effect that can lead to fatal
cardiac dysrhythmias. The nurse must monitor serum potassium levels frequently and
encourage the intake of potassium-rich foods or supplements as ordered.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer Warfarin (Coumadin) to a patient. Which lab result
must be reviewed to ensure the dose is therapeutic and safe?
A. PT/INR
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count
D. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
Answer: A
Rationale: The Prothrombin Time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR) are the
standard monitoring parameters for patients on Warfarin therapy. The goal of therapy is
typically an INR between 2.0 and 3.0 for most conditions like atrial fibrillation or DVT.
Consistently monitoring these levels prevents both subtherapeutic dosing and excessive
bleeding risks.
, 4. A patient with a history of asthma is diagnosed with hypertension. Which class of
antihypertensive medications should the nurse question if prescribed?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
D. Non-selective Beta-blockers
Answer: D
Rationale: Non-selective beta-blockers, such as Propranolol, block both Beta-1 and Beta-2
receptors. Blocking Beta-2 receptors in the lungs can cause bronchoconstriction, which is
dangerous for patients with asthma or COPD. Selective beta-blockers that target only Beta-
1 receptors are generally preferred in these populations.
5. A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension. Which side effect is commonly
associated with ACE inhibitors and may lead to the discontinuation of the drug?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Hypokalemia
D. Constipation
Answer: B
Pharmacology | Actual Q&A with Rationale
(NURS305 Final Exam) | Liberty University
1. A nurse is monitoring a patient receiving Digoxin for heart failure. Which clinical
manifestation should the nurse identify as an early sign of digoxin toxicity?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Tachycardia
C. Increased urinary output
D. Anorexia and nausea
Answer: D
Rationale: Early signs of digoxin toxicity often involve gastrointestinal disturbances such
as anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Visual disturbances, such as yellow-green halos, and
cardiac arrhythmias may follow these initial symptoms. It is critical for the nurse to assess
the apical pulse for one full minute and monitor potassium levels, as hypokalemia increases
the risk of toxicity.
2. A patient is prescribed Furosemide (Lasix) for the management of peripheral edema. Which
laboratory value is the highest priority for the nurse to monitor?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum calcium
,C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Serum potassium
Answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that causes significant excretion of
potassium in the urine. Hypokalemia is a life-threatening side effect that can lead to fatal
cardiac dysrhythmias. The nurse must monitor serum potassium levels frequently and
encourage the intake of potassium-rich foods or supplements as ordered.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer Warfarin (Coumadin) to a patient. Which lab result
must be reviewed to ensure the dose is therapeutic and safe?
A. PT/INR
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count
D. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
Answer: A
Rationale: The Prothrombin Time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR) are the
standard monitoring parameters for patients on Warfarin therapy. The goal of therapy is
typically an INR between 2.0 and 3.0 for most conditions like atrial fibrillation or DVT.
Consistently monitoring these levels prevents both subtherapeutic dosing and excessive
bleeding risks.
, 4. A patient with a history of asthma is diagnosed with hypertension. Which class of
antihypertensive medications should the nurse question if prescribed?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
D. Non-selective Beta-blockers
Answer: D
Rationale: Non-selective beta-blockers, such as Propranolol, block both Beta-1 and Beta-2
receptors. Blocking Beta-2 receptors in the lungs can cause bronchoconstriction, which is
dangerous for patients with asthma or COPD. Selective beta-blockers that target only Beta-
1 receptors are generally preferred in these populations.
5. A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension. Which side effect is commonly
associated with ACE inhibitors and may lead to the discontinuation of the drug?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Hypokalemia
D. Constipation
Answer: B
