NR547 Week 8 Exam V1 | NR547
Differential Diagnosis in Psychiatric-
Mental Health across the Lifespan
Practicum | Q&A with Rationale (NR547
Week 8 Exam) | Chamberlain University
1. A 24-year-old female presents with a 2-week history of persistently elevated mood,
decreased need for sleep (3 hours per night), and rapid speech. She reports she has ‘never felt
better’ and has spent $5,000 on new clothes. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Bipolar I Disorder
B. Major Depressive Disorder
C. Bipolar II Disorder
D. Cyclothymic Disorder
Answer: A
Rationale: Bipolar I Disorder is characterized by the occurrence of at least one manic
episode that lasts at least one week. The patient exhibits classic symptoms such as
grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, and excessive involvement in pleasurable activities
with high potential for painful consequences. Unlike Bipolar II, a manic episode in Bipolar I
does not require a prior depressive episode for diagnosis.
,2. Which assessment tool is specifically used to monitor involuntary movements in patients
taking antipsychotic medications?
A. PHQ-9
B. AIMS
C. GAD-7
D. MDQ
Answer: B
Rationale: The Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) is the standard tool for
assessing tardive dyskinesia in patients on long-term antipsychotic therapy. It tracks the
severity of movements in the face, trunk, and extremities over time. Regular monitoring is
essential for early detection and management of extrapyramidal side effects.
3. A 10-year-old boy is brought in by his parents due to difficulty staying seated in class,
frequently interrupting others, and losing his homework. These symptoms have been present
for 8 months. What is the priority differential?
A. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
B. Autism Spectrum Disorder
C. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
D. Conduct Disorder
Answer: A
, Rationale: ADHD is characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention and/or
hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning or development. Symptoms must
be present for at least 6 months and occur in two or more settings, such as home and
school. The clinical presentation of interrupting and losing tasks aligns with the combined
type of ADHD.
4. Which of the following is a core requirement for a diagnosis of Schizoaffective Disorder?
A. A history of substance abuse that triggers psychotic symptoms.
B. Symptoms of a mood disorder occurring only during active phase schizophrenia.
C. Delusions or hallucinations for 2 or more weeks in the absence of a major mood episode.
D. Presence of negative symptoms for at least one year.
Answer: C
Rationale: Schizoaffective Disorder requires that delusions or hallucinations be present
for at least 2 weeks without a major mood episode (depressive or manic). This criterion
helps differentiate it from Bipolar Disorder with psychotic features or MDD with psychotic
features. Mood symptoms must also be present for the majority of the total duration of the
illness.
5. A 45-year-old male reports sudden onset of intense fear, palpitations, sweating, and a
feeling of ‘impending doom’ that peaks within 10 minutes. He has experienced this three
times in the last month. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Panic Disorder
Differential Diagnosis in Psychiatric-
Mental Health across the Lifespan
Practicum | Q&A with Rationale (NR547
Week 8 Exam) | Chamberlain University
1. A 24-year-old female presents with a 2-week history of persistently elevated mood,
decreased need for sleep (3 hours per night), and rapid speech. She reports she has ‘never felt
better’ and has spent $5,000 on new clothes. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Bipolar I Disorder
B. Major Depressive Disorder
C. Bipolar II Disorder
D. Cyclothymic Disorder
Answer: A
Rationale: Bipolar I Disorder is characterized by the occurrence of at least one manic
episode that lasts at least one week. The patient exhibits classic symptoms such as
grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, and excessive involvement in pleasurable activities
with high potential for painful consequences. Unlike Bipolar II, a manic episode in Bipolar I
does not require a prior depressive episode for diagnosis.
,2. Which assessment tool is specifically used to monitor involuntary movements in patients
taking antipsychotic medications?
A. PHQ-9
B. AIMS
C. GAD-7
D. MDQ
Answer: B
Rationale: The Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) is the standard tool for
assessing tardive dyskinesia in patients on long-term antipsychotic therapy. It tracks the
severity of movements in the face, trunk, and extremities over time. Regular monitoring is
essential for early detection and management of extrapyramidal side effects.
3. A 10-year-old boy is brought in by his parents due to difficulty staying seated in class,
frequently interrupting others, and losing his homework. These symptoms have been present
for 8 months. What is the priority differential?
A. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
B. Autism Spectrum Disorder
C. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
D. Conduct Disorder
Answer: A
, Rationale: ADHD is characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention and/or
hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning or development. Symptoms must
be present for at least 6 months and occur in two or more settings, such as home and
school. The clinical presentation of interrupting and losing tasks aligns with the combined
type of ADHD.
4. Which of the following is a core requirement for a diagnosis of Schizoaffective Disorder?
A. A history of substance abuse that triggers psychotic symptoms.
B. Symptoms of a mood disorder occurring only during active phase schizophrenia.
C. Delusions or hallucinations for 2 or more weeks in the absence of a major mood episode.
D. Presence of negative symptoms for at least one year.
Answer: C
Rationale: Schizoaffective Disorder requires that delusions or hallucinations be present
for at least 2 weeks without a major mood episode (depressive or manic). This criterion
helps differentiate it from Bipolar Disorder with psychotic features or MDD with psychotic
features. Mood symptoms must also be present for the majority of the total duration of the
illness.
5. A 45-year-old male reports sudden onset of intense fear, palpitations, sweating, and a
feeling of ‘impending doom’ that peaks within 10 minutes. He has experienced this three
times in the last month. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Panic Disorder
