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COUC 546 Exam 3 V1 | COUC 546 Psychopathology | Actual Q&A with Rationale (COUC546 Exam 3) | Liberty University

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COUC 546 Exam 3 V1 | COUC 546 Psychopathology | Actual Q&A with Rationale (COUC546 Exam 3) | Liberty University

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COUC 546 Exam 3 V1 | COUC 546
Psychopathology | Actual Q&A with
Rationale (COUC546 Exam 3) | Liberty
University
1. A 24-year-old male presents with auditory hallucinations and persecutory delusions that

have persisted for exactly three months. He has no history of a major depressive or manic

episode. What is the most appropriate DSM-5-TR diagnosis?

A. Schizophreniform Disorder


B. Schizophrenia


C. Brief Psychotic Disorder


D. Delusional Disorder


Answer: A


Rationale: Schizophreniform disorder is the correct diagnosis because the duration of

symptoms is at least one month but less than six months. If the symptoms were to persist

beyond the six-month mark, the diagnosis would be updated to Schizophrenia. The absence

of a mood episode helps differentiate this from Schizoaffective Disorder.


2. Which of the following is a key requirement for a diagnosis of Schizoaffective Disorder?

A. Delusions occurring only during a major mood episode

,B. Symptoms of a major mood episode present for the minority of the total duration of the

illness


C. A history of substance-induced psychosis


D. Delusions or hallucinations for 2 or more weeks in the absence of a major mood episode


Answer: D


Rationale: Schizoaffective disorder requires that the individual meets Criterion A for

Schizophrenia and has a concurrent major mood episode. Crucially, there must be a period

of at least two weeks where psychotic symptoms exist without prominent mood symptoms.

This distinction separates it from a Depressive or Bipolar Disorder with Psychotic Features.


3. A client reports a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a

restricted range of expression of emotions in interpersonal settings. They neither desire nor

enjoy close relationships, including being part of a family. This best describes:

A. Avoidant Personality Disorder


B. Antisocial Personality Disorder


C. Schizotypal Personality Disorder


D. Schizoid Personality Disorder


Answer: D


Rationale: Schizoid Personality Disorder is characterized by a lack of interest in social

relationships and a limited emotional range. Unlike Avoidant Personality Disorder, where

,the individual fears rejection, the schizoid individual simply lacks the desire for intimacy.

This pattern must be present since early adulthood and across various contexts.


4. To meet the criteria for Bipolar I Disorder, an individual must have experienced at least

one:

A. Major Depressive Episode


B. Hypomanic Episode


C. Cyclothymic Episode


D. Manic Episode


Answer: D


Rationale: A diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder requires the occurrence of at least one manic

episode in the lifetime. While major depressive episodes are very common in Bipolar I, they

are not strictly required for the diagnosis according to the DSM-5-TR. In contrast, Bipolar II

requires both a hypomanic episode and a major depressive episode.


5. What is the minimum duration required for the diagnosis of Persistent Depressive Disorder

(Dysthymia) in adults?

A. 6 months


B. 2 years


C. 1 year


D. 5 years

, Answer: B


Rationale: Persistent Depressive Disorder involves a depressed mood for most of the day,

for more days than not, for at least two years. In children and adolescents, the required

duration is reduced to one year, and the mood can be irritable rather than depressed.

During this period, the individual must not have been without the symptoms for more than

two months at a time.


6. A 10-year-old child exhibits severe, recurrent temper outbursts that are grossly out of

proportion in intensity or duration to the situation. These occur three or more times per

week. Between outbursts, the child’s mood is persistently irritable. What is the likely

diagnosis?

A. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder


B. Bipolar I Disorder


C. Oppositional Defiant Disorder


D. Intermittent Explosive Disorder


Answer: A


Rationale: Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD) was introduced to address

the over-diagnosis of Bipolar Disorder in children. It focuses on chronic irritability and

frequent temper tantrums rather than episodic mania. The symptoms must be present for

12 or more months in at least two settings.

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