ATI RN Maternal-Newborn Proctored
Exam Practice Test Bank – NGN 2025
100 Questions with Answers and
Detailed Rationales
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM (Questions 1-25)
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 12 weeks gestation and reports
nausea and vomiting. Which of the following recommendations
should the nurse make?
A. Eat three large meals daily
B. Drink fluids with meals
C. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed
D. Lie down immediately after eating
Answer: C. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed
Rationale: Eating dry crackers or toast before arising helps maintain
blood glucose levels and reduces nausea by preventing an empty
stomach. Options A and B can worsen nausea (large meals, fluids with
meals). Lying down after eating (D) delays gastric emptying and can
increase nausea. Small, frequent meals and avoiding strong odors are
also recommended.
Question 2
A nurse is calculating the estimated date of birth (EDB) using
,Naegele's rule for a client whose last menstrual period began on June
10. Which date should the nurse document?
A. March 3
B. March 10
C. March 17
D. March 24
Answer: C. March 17
Rationale: Naegele's rule: Subtract 3 months from the first day of the
LMP and add 7 days. June 10 → March 10 + 7 days = March 17. This
calculation assumes a 28-day menstrual cycle. Accurate dating is
essential for monitoring fetal growth and determining gestational age.
Question 3
A nurse is reviewing prenatal laboratory results for a client at 8 weeks
gestation. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
B. Rubella titer 1:8
C. Blood type O negative
D. Hematocrit 34%
Answer: B. Rubella titer 1:8
Rationale: A rubella titer of 1:8 indicates non-immunity to rubella. The
client should receive the MMR vaccine postpartum (not during
pregnancy as it's a live vaccine). Rh-negative clients (C) need RhoGAM
at 28 weeks and within 72 hours of birth. Hemoglobin 11.2 (A) and
hematocrit 34% (D) are within expected ranges for pregnancy
(physiologic anemia).
,Question 4
A nurse is providing education to a client at 16 weeks gestation about
prenatal screenings. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. "I will have a glucose tolerance test at my next visit"
B. "The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test screens for neural tube
defects"
C. "An amniocentesis is routinely done at this gestation"
D. "The nonstress test evaluates fetal lung maturity"
Answer: B. "The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test screens for
neural tube defects"
Rationale: MSAFP screening is typically performed at 15-20 weeks
and screens for open neural tube defects (spina bifida, anencephaly)
and abdominal wall defects. Glucose tolerance testing (A) occurs at
24-28 weeks. Amniocentesis (C) is not routine; it's an invasive
diagnostic test typically done for specific indications. Nonstress tests
(D) evaluate fetal well-being, not lung maturity.
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a client at 24 weeks gestation. Which clinical
finding should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Fundal height 22 cm
B. Fetal heart rate 150/min
C. 2+ edema in lower extremities
D. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
Answer: D. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
Rationale: Blood pressure ≥140/90 mm Hg is concerning for
gestational hypertension or preeclampsia. Fundal height at 24 weeks
should be ±2 cm from gestational age (22-26 cm). Fetal heart rate
, 110-160/min is normal. Mild edema (C) is expected in pregnancy due
to fluid retention.
Question 6
A nurse is teaching a client with gestational diabetes about dietary
management. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Consume a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet"
B. "Eat three meals per day with no snacks"
C. "Space carbohydrates evenly throughout the day"
D. "Avoid all fruits due to sugar content"
Answer: C. "Space carbohydrates evenly throughout the day"
Rationale: Even distribution of carbohydrates across meals and
snacks helps maintain stable blood glucose levels. Complete
carbohydrate restriction (D) is unnecessary; complex carbohydrates
with fiber are appropriate. Small, frequent meals (B) are preferred over
three large meals. A balanced diet with appropriate carbohydrate
distribution is recommended.
Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks gestation who reports
headache and blurred vision. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer acetaminophen as ordered
B. Check the client's blood pressure
C. Perform a nonstress test
D. Assess deep tendon reflexes
Answer: B. Check the client's blood pressure
Exam Practice Test Bank – NGN 2025
100 Questions with Answers and
Detailed Rationales
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM (Questions 1-25)
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 12 weeks gestation and reports
nausea and vomiting. Which of the following recommendations
should the nurse make?
A. Eat three large meals daily
B. Drink fluids with meals
C. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed
D. Lie down immediately after eating
Answer: C. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed
Rationale: Eating dry crackers or toast before arising helps maintain
blood glucose levels and reduces nausea by preventing an empty
stomach. Options A and B can worsen nausea (large meals, fluids with
meals). Lying down after eating (D) delays gastric emptying and can
increase nausea. Small, frequent meals and avoiding strong odors are
also recommended.
Question 2
A nurse is calculating the estimated date of birth (EDB) using
,Naegele's rule for a client whose last menstrual period began on June
10. Which date should the nurse document?
A. March 3
B. March 10
C. March 17
D. March 24
Answer: C. March 17
Rationale: Naegele's rule: Subtract 3 months from the first day of the
LMP and add 7 days. June 10 → March 10 + 7 days = March 17. This
calculation assumes a 28-day menstrual cycle. Accurate dating is
essential for monitoring fetal growth and determining gestational age.
Question 3
A nurse is reviewing prenatal laboratory results for a client at 8 weeks
gestation. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
B. Rubella titer 1:8
C. Blood type O negative
D. Hematocrit 34%
Answer: B. Rubella titer 1:8
Rationale: A rubella titer of 1:8 indicates non-immunity to rubella. The
client should receive the MMR vaccine postpartum (not during
pregnancy as it's a live vaccine). Rh-negative clients (C) need RhoGAM
at 28 weeks and within 72 hours of birth. Hemoglobin 11.2 (A) and
hematocrit 34% (D) are within expected ranges for pregnancy
(physiologic anemia).
,Question 4
A nurse is providing education to a client at 16 weeks gestation about
prenatal screenings. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. "I will have a glucose tolerance test at my next visit"
B. "The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test screens for neural tube
defects"
C. "An amniocentesis is routinely done at this gestation"
D. "The nonstress test evaluates fetal lung maturity"
Answer: B. "The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test screens for
neural tube defects"
Rationale: MSAFP screening is typically performed at 15-20 weeks
and screens for open neural tube defects (spina bifida, anencephaly)
and abdominal wall defects. Glucose tolerance testing (A) occurs at
24-28 weeks. Amniocentesis (C) is not routine; it's an invasive
diagnostic test typically done for specific indications. Nonstress tests
(D) evaluate fetal well-being, not lung maturity.
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a client at 24 weeks gestation. Which clinical
finding should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Fundal height 22 cm
B. Fetal heart rate 150/min
C. 2+ edema in lower extremities
D. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
Answer: D. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
Rationale: Blood pressure ≥140/90 mm Hg is concerning for
gestational hypertension or preeclampsia. Fundal height at 24 weeks
should be ±2 cm from gestational age (22-26 cm). Fetal heart rate
, 110-160/min is normal. Mild edema (C) is expected in pregnancy due
to fluid retention.
Question 6
A nurse is teaching a client with gestational diabetes about dietary
management. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Consume a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet"
B. "Eat three meals per day with no snacks"
C. "Space carbohydrates evenly throughout the day"
D. "Avoid all fruits due to sugar content"
Answer: C. "Space carbohydrates evenly throughout the day"
Rationale: Even distribution of carbohydrates across meals and
snacks helps maintain stable blood glucose levels. Complete
carbohydrate restriction (D) is unnecessary; complex carbohydrates
with fiber are appropriate. Small, frequent meals (B) are preferred over
three large meals. A balanced diet with appropriate carbohydrate
distribution is recommended.
Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks gestation who reports
headache and blurred vision. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer acetaminophen as ordered
B. Check the client's blood pressure
C. Perform a nonstress test
D. Assess deep tendon reflexes
Answer: B. Check the client's blood pressure
