FEMA Final Exam - ICS 100 (IS-100.C),
Introduction to the Incident Command System
1. What is a central element of an antitrust violation?
A. A contract
B. A price increase
C. A merger
D. A monopoly
Answer: A
Rationale: Antitrust involves a contract and conspiracy among competitors.
2. What is the maximum weight allowed for Priority Mail Flat Rate Boxes?
A. 70 lbs
B. 50 lbs
C. 25 lbs
D. 100 lbs
Answer: A
Rationale: The United States Postal Service (USPS) specifies that Priority Mail Flat
Rate Boxes have a maximum weight limit of 70 pounds. This limit ensures
consistent pricing and handling for flat-rate shipping.
3. A nurse is administering continuous enteral feedings to a client via a
percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take?
A. Replace the PEG tube every 7 days
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 15 degrees during feedings
C. Measure the pH of gastric residual every 24 hr
D. Flush the PEG tube with 30 mL of sterile water every 4 hours
Answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees during
continuous enteral feedings reduces the risk of aspiration. This is a standard
nursing intervention for clients receiving tube feedings.
Page 1
,4. Alison has set goals for her new brokerage and is now ready to develop
strategies. She meets with her mentor, James, for guidance on strategy. James
begins by explaining the purpose of strategy. Assuming James is an expert,
which of the following statements would he make about the purpose of
strategy?
A. The purpose of a strategy is to allocate resources and assign tasks to ensure efficient
daily operations.
B. The purpose of a strategy is to define the desired end state or outcome that an
organization aims to achieve.
C. The purpose of a strategy is to evaluate past performance and identify areas for
improvement.
D. The purpose of a strategy is to support and help reach a goal by determining the
method by which the goal can be achieved.
Answer: D
Rationale: The purpose of a strategy is to support and help reach a goal by
determining the method by which the goal can be achieved.
5. Which of the following best describes laissez-faire management?
A. It is a highly directive style where managers closely supervise every task.
B. It involves managers making all decisions without input from employees.
C. It is a collaborative style where managers and employees share decision-making
equally.
D. It is hands-off and best used when employees have been on the job for a while and
know the processes to follow without the need for monitoring.
Answer: D
Rationale: Laissez-faire management is characterized by a hands-off approach,
allowing employees to work independently. This style is effective when employees
are experienced and self-motivated, as described in option A.
6. A nurse is conducting nutritional screening for older adults at a community
health fair. Which question is most important to ask when assessing an older
adult for nutritional risk?
A. About the frequency of eating out at restaurants.
B. About the amount of physical activity performed each week.
C. About the use of three or more prescribed or over-the-counter daily medications.
D. About the number of servings of fruits and vegetables consumed daily.
Answer: C
Page 2
,Rationale: Unintentional weight change is a key indicator of nutritional risk in older adults. While polypharmacy (option
A) is relevant, weight loss is a more direct and sensitive screening question for malnutrition.
7. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who reports nausea during
pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
A. I will drink a glass of orange juice first thing in the morning.
B. I will lie down for 30 minutes after eating breakfast.
C. I will avoid eating anything until the nausea subsides.
D. I will eat dry cereal before I get out of bed.
Answer: D
Rationale: Eating dry cereal before getting out of bed helps settle the stomach and is
a common recommendation for nausea during pregnancy. The other options are not
evidence-based for managing pregnancy-related nausea.
8. In which of the following situations is obtaining a rectal temperature
indicated?
A. When the patient is uncooperative
B. Whenever accuracy is essential
C. For routine vital sign monitoring in adults
D. When the patient has a nasogastric tube
Answer: B
Rationale: Rectal temperature measurement is considered the gold standard for
core body temperature because it is least affected by external factors, making it the
most accurate method. Therefore, it is indicated whenever precise temperature data
is critical, such as in hypothermia or hyperthermia management. Other methods
like oral or axillary are less accurate and may be influenced by environmental
conditions or patient factors.
9. A nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) who
has been prescribed an oral diet. The client asks why the TPN is being
continued now that he is eating. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A. The TPN is continued to provide extra vitamins and minerals that the oral diet may
lack.
B. You should consume at least 60 percent of your calories orally before the parenteral
nutrition can be discontinued.
Page 3
, C. Once you start eating, the TPN will be stopped immediately to prevent
complications.
D. The TPN is necessary to maintain hydration until your oral intake is sufficient.
Answer: B
Rationale: TPN is continued until the client can meet full nutritional requirements
orally. Option A correctly explains that TPN supplements oral intake until the client
can meet all needs. Option B is incorrect because there is no specific 60%
threshold; discontinuation is based on adequate oral intake. Option C is misleading
as TPN is not primarily for weight loss prevention. Option D is incorrect because
TPN is not abruptly discontinued when oral intake begins.
10. A nurse is teaching a client about dietary changes needed for weight loss.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Discuss the benefits of exercise.
B. Set a target weight loss goal.
C. Provide a list of low-calorie foods.
D. Determine the client's daily caloric intake.
Answer: D
Rationale: The first step in dietary teaching is assessment. Determining the client's
current caloric intake provides baseline data to tailor recommendations. The
nursing process prioritizes assessment before implementing interventions.
11. Some MLS systems now allow licensees to include a building's LEED
certification level. This is an example of a response to which current trend?
A. technology integration
B. regulatory compliance
C. sustainability
D. globalization
Answer: C
Rationale: The question asks about a trend related to including LEED certification
in MLS systems, which directly reflects the growing emphasis on sustainability and
green building practices in real estate.
12. When providing discharge instructions to a parent whose child has scabies,
what information should the nurse include?
A. All family members should be treated only if they show symptoms.
Page 4
Introduction to the Incident Command System
1. What is a central element of an antitrust violation?
A. A contract
B. A price increase
C. A merger
D. A monopoly
Answer: A
Rationale: Antitrust involves a contract and conspiracy among competitors.
2. What is the maximum weight allowed for Priority Mail Flat Rate Boxes?
A. 70 lbs
B. 50 lbs
C. 25 lbs
D. 100 lbs
Answer: A
Rationale: The United States Postal Service (USPS) specifies that Priority Mail Flat
Rate Boxes have a maximum weight limit of 70 pounds. This limit ensures
consistent pricing and handling for flat-rate shipping.
3. A nurse is administering continuous enteral feedings to a client via a
percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take?
A. Replace the PEG tube every 7 days
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 15 degrees during feedings
C. Measure the pH of gastric residual every 24 hr
D. Flush the PEG tube with 30 mL of sterile water every 4 hours
Answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees during
continuous enteral feedings reduces the risk of aspiration. This is a standard
nursing intervention for clients receiving tube feedings.
Page 1
,4. Alison has set goals for her new brokerage and is now ready to develop
strategies. She meets with her mentor, James, for guidance on strategy. James
begins by explaining the purpose of strategy. Assuming James is an expert,
which of the following statements would he make about the purpose of
strategy?
A. The purpose of a strategy is to allocate resources and assign tasks to ensure efficient
daily operations.
B. The purpose of a strategy is to define the desired end state or outcome that an
organization aims to achieve.
C. The purpose of a strategy is to evaluate past performance and identify areas for
improvement.
D. The purpose of a strategy is to support and help reach a goal by determining the
method by which the goal can be achieved.
Answer: D
Rationale: The purpose of a strategy is to support and help reach a goal by
determining the method by which the goal can be achieved.
5. Which of the following best describes laissez-faire management?
A. It is a highly directive style where managers closely supervise every task.
B. It involves managers making all decisions without input from employees.
C. It is a collaborative style where managers and employees share decision-making
equally.
D. It is hands-off and best used when employees have been on the job for a while and
know the processes to follow without the need for monitoring.
Answer: D
Rationale: Laissez-faire management is characterized by a hands-off approach,
allowing employees to work independently. This style is effective when employees
are experienced and self-motivated, as described in option A.
6. A nurse is conducting nutritional screening for older adults at a community
health fair. Which question is most important to ask when assessing an older
adult for nutritional risk?
A. About the frequency of eating out at restaurants.
B. About the amount of physical activity performed each week.
C. About the use of three or more prescribed or over-the-counter daily medications.
D. About the number of servings of fruits and vegetables consumed daily.
Answer: C
Page 2
,Rationale: Unintentional weight change is a key indicator of nutritional risk in older adults. While polypharmacy (option
A) is relevant, weight loss is a more direct and sensitive screening question for malnutrition.
7. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who reports nausea during
pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
A. I will drink a glass of orange juice first thing in the morning.
B. I will lie down for 30 minutes after eating breakfast.
C. I will avoid eating anything until the nausea subsides.
D. I will eat dry cereal before I get out of bed.
Answer: D
Rationale: Eating dry cereal before getting out of bed helps settle the stomach and is
a common recommendation for nausea during pregnancy. The other options are not
evidence-based for managing pregnancy-related nausea.
8. In which of the following situations is obtaining a rectal temperature
indicated?
A. When the patient is uncooperative
B. Whenever accuracy is essential
C. For routine vital sign monitoring in adults
D. When the patient has a nasogastric tube
Answer: B
Rationale: Rectal temperature measurement is considered the gold standard for
core body temperature because it is least affected by external factors, making it the
most accurate method. Therefore, it is indicated whenever precise temperature data
is critical, such as in hypothermia or hyperthermia management. Other methods
like oral or axillary are less accurate and may be influenced by environmental
conditions or patient factors.
9. A nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) who
has been prescribed an oral diet. The client asks why the TPN is being
continued now that he is eating. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A. The TPN is continued to provide extra vitamins and minerals that the oral diet may
lack.
B. You should consume at least 60 percent of your calories orally before the parenteral
nutrition can be discontinued.
Page 3
, C. Once you start eating, the TPN will be stopped immediately to prevent
complications.
D. The TPN is necessary to maintain hydration until your oral intake is sufficient.
Answer: B
Rationale: TPN is continued until the client can meet full nutritional requirements
orally. Option A correctly explains that TPN supplements oral intake until the client
can meet all needs. Option B is incorrect because there is no specific 60%
threshold; discontinuation is based on adequate oral intake. Option C is misleading
as TPN is not primarily for weight loss prevention. Option D is incorrect because
TPN is not abruptly discontinued when oral intake begins.
10. A nurse is teaching a client about dietary changes needed for weight loss.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Discuss the benefits of exercise.
B. Set a target weight loss goal.
C. Provide a list of low-calorie foods.
D. Determine the client's daily caloric intake.
Answer: D
Rationale: The first step in dietary teaching is assessment. Determining the client's
current caloric intake provides baseline data to tailor recommendations. The
nursing process prioritizes assessment before implementing interventions.
11. Some MLS systems now allow licensees to include a building's LEED
certification level. This is an example of a response to which current trend?
A. technology integration
B. regulatory compliance
C. sustainability
D. globalization
Answer: C
Rationale: The question asks about a trend related to including LEED certification
in MLS systems, which directly reflects the growing emphasis on sustainability and
green building practices in real estate.
12. When providing discharge instructions to a parent whose child has scabies,
what information should the nurse include?
A. All family members should be treated only if they show symptoms.
Page 4
