NR 507 / NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology Final
Exam Review | Verified Answers | Latest Update
2026 / 2027 | Chamberlain University | Exam
Review & Practice Questions
Question:
Asthma
Answer
Chronic disease due to bronchoconstriction and an excessive inflammatory response in the
bronchioles
Question:
What are 5 s/s of asthma
Answer
coughing
wheezing
shortness of breath
rapid breathing
chest tightness
Question:
Pathophysiology of asthma (5)
Answer
-airway inflammation, bronchial hyper-reactivity and smooth muscle spasm -excess mucus production and accumulation -hypertrophy of bronchial smooth muscle -airflow obstruction -decreased alveolar ventilation
Question:
Bronchioles
Answer
smaller passageways that originate from the bronchi that become the alveoli
Question:
3 layers of the bronchioles
Answer
innermost layer
middle layer - lamina propria
outermost layer
Question:
lamina propria
Answer
the middle layer of the bronchioles
Question:
structure of the lamina propria
Answer
embedded with connective tissue cells and immune cells
Question:
purpose of the lamina propria
Answer
white blood cells are present to help protect the airways
Question:
How does the lamina propria effect the lungs in regards to asthma
Answer
the WBCs protective feature goes into overdrive causing an inflammatory response that damages
host tissue
Question:
What does the innermost layer of the bronchioles contain
Answer
columnar epithelial ells and mucus producing goblet cells
Question:
What does the outermost layer of the bronchioles contain
Answer
smooth muscle cells
Question:
what does the outermost layer of the bronchioles do
Answer
control the airways ability to constrict and dilate
Question:
alveolar hyperinflation
Answer
When air is unable to move out of the alveolar like it should due to bronchial walls collapsing
around possible mucus plug thus trapping air inside
Question:
how does hyperinflation occur?
Answer
the ongoing inflammatory process of asthma produces mucus and pus plug that the bronchial
walls collapse around
Question:
Effect of hyperinflation of the alveolar
Answer
-expanded thorax and hypercapnia (retention of CO2) - respiratory acidosis
Question:
What are two anticholinergic drugs used for asthma
Answer
tiotropium and ipratropium
Question:
What do anticholinergics do in the lungs?
Answer
These drugs block the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system - increasing bronchodilation
Question:
MOA of anticholinergic drugs for asthma
Answer
the parasympathetic system is stimulated by the vagal nerve to release acetylcholine which binds
to the cholinergic receptors of the respiratory tract to cause bronchial constriction = decreased
airflow - blocking the cholinergic receptors prevents acetylcholine binding preventing the bronchial
constriction
Question:
bronchitis
Answer
inflammation of the bronchial tubes
Question:
3 characteristics of bronchitis
Answer
bronchial inflammation
hypersecretion of mucus
chronic productive cough for at least 3 consecutive months for at least 2 successive years
Question:
Perfusion
Answer
The supply of oxygen to and removal of wastes from the cells and tissues of the body as a result
of the flow of blood through the capillaries.
results of chronic bronchitis/ low perfusion
Answer
cyanosis
right to left shunting
chronic hypoxemia
Why is there cyanosis with chronic bronchitis
Answer
there is hypoxia due to unfavorable conditions for gas exchange
Right to left shunting
Answer
when blood passes from the right ventricle through the lungs and to the left ventricle without
perfusion
Causes of bronchitis
Answer -long term exposure to environmental irritants -repeated episodes of acute infection (RSV infection in early infancy) -Factors affecting gestational childhood lung development (preterm birth)
Pathogenesis of bronchitis
Answer -Exposure to airborne irritants - Irritant activates bronchial smooth muscle constriction and mucus secretion - Triggers release of inflammatory mediators from immune cells located in the lamina propria
most common irritant with bronchitis is?
Answer
tobacco product smoke
what does long term exposure to irritants promote in bronchitis? (5)
Answer - smooth muscle hypertrophy - hypertrophy and hyperplasia of goblet cells - epithelial cell metaplasia - migration of more WBC to site - thickening and rigidity of bronchial basement membrane
What does smooth muscle hypertrophy do in lungs?
Answer
causes increased bronchoconstriction
Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of goblet cells do what in the bronchials
Answer
promotes hypersecretion of mucus
What are characteristics of epithelial cell metaplasia?
Answer
squamous cells become nonciliated and are less protective; allow passage of toxins and WBCs
What does the migration of WBCs to the bronchials do?
Answer
increases inflammation of the cite and causes fibrosis in the bronchial wall
How does the thickening and rigidity of bronchial basement membranes effect the lungs?
Answer
leads to further narrowing of the bronchial passageways
What acid-base disorder is seen in chronic bronchitis?
Answer
respiratory acidosis
how does chronic bronchitis lead to respiratory acidosis?
Answer
hyperinflation of the alveoli causes CO2 retention
Where does air enter the body?
Answer
naso and oropharynx (mouth and nose)
Where does air go after it passes through the nose and mouth?
Answer
it passes through the trachea
After air passes through the trachea where does it go?
Answer
goes into the left or right bronchi
Where does air flow after the bronchi?
Answer
into the smaller bronchioles
Where does air flow after the bronchioles?
Answer
into the alveoli
Describe how blood flows to become oxygenated
Answer - deoxygenated systemic blood flows from the vena cava to R atrium - Tricuspid valve opens to flow to R ventricle -Pulmonary semilunar valve opens and blood flows to the alveolar capillaries for gas exchange
from the pulmonary trunk and L & R pulmonary arteries - blood goes from alveolar capillaries to pulmonary veins to return oxygenated blood to the left
atrium
- bicuspid valve opens to allow blood to go to left ventricle - aortic semilunar valve opens and blood goes to the aorta - aorta pushes oxygenated blood out to the body
What is the formula for cardiac output
Answer
CO = HR x SV
cardiac reserve
Answer
difference between resting and maximal CO; should be about 4-5x as high but does decrease 1%
per year after age 30
What type of relationship does heart rate and stroke volume have?
Answer
inverse
low HR = longer fill time = increase stroke volume
high HR = lower fill time = lower stroke volume
What is preload?
Answer
the degree of stretch on the heart before it contracts/ amount of blood entering the ventricles
during diastole
average amount of preload?
Answer
120-130 mls
When fibers stretch during diastole how does that effect contraction?
Answer
contraction is stronger
What happens when cardiac fibers overstretch during diastole?
Answer
decreased contraction due to fibers being unable to snap back
What can cause increased preload
CHF and hypervolemia
What can cause decreased preload
cardiac tamponade and hypovolemia
What are two common causes of hypovolemia
dehydration and hemorrhage
Afterload
the amount of resistance to open the semilunar valves and eject of blood from the ventricle
what influences afterload (3)
ventricle wall thickness (muscle strength)
arterial pressure (resistance to ejection)
ventricle chamber size (blood volume capacity)
what can cause an increase in afterload
systemic hypertension
valve disease
COPD (pulmonary hypertension)
what can decrease afterload
hypotension or vasodilation
what influences cardiac contractility (inotropic state)
levels of electrolytes
High levels of ATP
level of oxygen available
synchronous muscle contraction
What electrolytes are used for cardiac muscle contraction?
sodium potassium and calcium
What increases cardiac muscle contraction
sympathetic stimulation; fear anxiety and increased thyroxine
what decreases cardiac muscle contraction
low ATP levels; ischemia hypoxia or acidosis
Stimulation of what set a resting HR (chronotropic state)
parasympathetic system
what stimulates the parasympathetic system
the vagus nerve
What does the parasympathetic system do?
It releases acetycholine which decreases heart rate and causes vasodilation
What can extreme vagal response result in?
life threatening bradycardia
What mediates the sympathetic system
epinephrine and norepinephrine
What does the sympathetic system promote in the cardiac system
vasoconstriction and increased HR
What can uncontrolled tachycardia lead to?
reduced stroke volume and fatigue
What are the two parts of the cardiac cycle?
diastole and systole
What causes blood to move from the atria to the ventricles
gravity and atriole systole
What causes the S1 heart sound?
Bicuspid/Mitral and Tricuspid valves closing
What are the atrioventricular valves?
tricuspid and bicuspid (mitral) valves
What are the semilunar valves?
pulmonary and aortic valves
What causes the semilunar valves to open?
As ventricles contract and intraventricular pressure rises, blood is pushed up against the SL
valves, forcing them to open
ejection fraction
measurement of the volume percentage of left ventricular contents ejected with each contraction
What causes the semilunar valves to close?
ventricles relax and intraventricular pressure falls, blood flows back from the arteries, and fill the
cusps of the semilunar valves
What causes the S2 heart sound?
closing of semilunar (aortic and pulmonary) valves
What prevents the backflow into the ventricles
semilunar valves
Stenosis of heart valve
A narrowing of the valve opening, causing turbulent flow and enlargement of the emptying
chamber
Stenosis of a heart valve, may result in what?
Narrowing of the heart valves means that blood moves with difficulty out of the heart. Results
may include chest pain, edema in the feet or ankles, and irregular heartbeat. and hypertrophy
heart failure
cardiac dysfunction caused by the inability of the heart to provide adequate CO resulting in
inadequate tissue perfusion
Left sided heart failure characteristic
inability of the left ventricle to provide adequate blood flow into systemic circulation
Causes of left sided heart failure
systemic hypertension
left ventricle MI
LV hypertrophy
Aortic SL valve or bicuspid valve damage
Secondary to right heart failure
How does LV hypertrophy lead to left sided heart failure
The hypertrophy is secondary to cardiac damage resulting in an enlarged by weaker structure that
holds more blood
How does Aortic SL valve or bicuspid valve damage lead to heart failure
damage leads to back flow into the left atrium or ventricle after ejection
Biventricular failure
unresolved left sided heart failure will increase pressure on the right side of the heart
contributing to right sided heart failure as well
How does heart failure progress from hypertension? - high systemic vascular pressure causes high after load requires the left ventricle to increase
contraction force to eject the blood - damage causes reduced ejection fraction and left ventricle gets tired and becomes unable to
eject normal amount of blood - increased amount of blood remaining in left ventricle and increased left ventricle preload
causes the left atrium unable to eject the normal amount of blood into the left ventricle - blood volume and pressure backs up into the pulmonary veins - increased pressure will force fluid from the pulmonary capillaries into the pulmonary tissues
What does fluid in the pulmonary tissue result in
the areas are flooded and results in pulmonary edema and dyspnea
cor pulmonale
right-sided heart failure
right sided heart failure
inability of the right ventricle to provide adequate blood flow into the pulmonary circulation
Causes of right sided heart failure - pulmonary disease - pulmonary hypertension - RV MI - RV Hypertrophy - pulmonary SLV or tricuspid valve damage - secondary to left heart failure
What is the most common cause of right sided heart failure
pulmonary hypertension
Progression of right sided heart failure - damage causes the right ventricle to increase contraction force to eject/unload the blood
- over time EF is reduced and right ventricle us unable to eject the normal amount of blood - the blood remaining in the RV increases and RA preload increases until the RA is unable to
eject the normal amount of blood into the RA - the amount of blood remaining in the right atrium increases causing an increase in RA preload - blood volum enad pressure then backs up into the vena cava and systemic veins
signs and symptoms of right sided heart failure
jugular vein distension
hepatosplenomegaly
peripheral edema
Why does hepatosplenomegaly develop in right sided heart failure
the large volume of blood flow through the liver and spleen causes these areas to be engorged
why does peripheral edema occur in right sided heart failure
Increased pressure forces fluid from the systemic capillaries into the peripheral tissues and flood
those areas
High output failure
inability of the heart to pump sufficient amounts of blood to meet the circulatory needs of the
body despite normal blood volume and cardiac contractility
causes of high output failure
Severe anemia
Nutritional deficiencies
Hyperthyroidism
Sepsis
Extreme febrile state
Process of high output failure - impaired oxygen delivery of excessive tissue oxygen demands cause tissue hypoxia - catecholamines initiation increase HR and stroke volume - increased cardiac output is produced but depletes cardiac muscle reserve overtime and leads to
low output failure over time
Troponin-Calcium Binding
Calcium binds to troponin on the thin filament
sliding filament theory
theory that actin filaments slide toward each other during muscle contraction, while the myosin
filaments are still
Hematopoiesis
formation of blood cells
Where does blood cell formation occur in a fetus
3 weeks - yolk
week 8 - fetal liver and spleen
5th month - bone marrow
Blood cell formation in chidren 0-5 years old
red marrow of all bones to make blood cells
blood cell formation in adults over 20
red marrow in large bones -illium, vertebrae, cranium, jaw, sternum, ribs, humerus, and femur
Erythropietin
Produce: Kidney (small amount in liver)
Released: Kidney
Target: Bone Marrow
Functions: Stimulates bone marrow to produce more red blood cells
hematopoietic stem cells
The stem cells that give rise to RBC WBC and platelets through the process of haematopoiesis.
How does a hematopoietic stem cell produce a red blood cell
hematopoietic stem cells produces an unndifferentiated hemocytoblast - erythropoietin binds to it and createsa a proerythroblast - cell develops into an erythrocyte 7 days later
Erythrocyte function
transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
Erythrocyte life span
120 days
anemia risk factors
acute or chronic blood loss, increased hemolysis, inadequate dietary intake or malabsorption,
bone marrow suppression, age
function of hemoglobin
In red blood cells, carries oxygen from the lungs to body's tissues and returns carbon dioxide
from tissues back to lungs. It also maintains the shape of red blood cells.
causes of anemia - impaired RBC production - excessive blood loss - increased RBC destruction
hemolytic anemia
premature destruction of RBCs
causes of hemolytic anemia
infection
transfusion reaction
hemolytic disease of the newborn (Rh incompatibility)
autoimmune reaction
drug induced
development of anemia due to gastrectomy
loss of intrinsic factor from surgery results in the loss of protein necessary for vitamin B12
absorption an can lead to anemia
what kind of anemia can result from incorrect blood transfusion
hemolytic anemia
normocytic normochromic anemia
Characterized by red cells that are relatively normal in size and hemoglobin content but
insufficient in number
hemolytic anemia is what kind of anemia
normocytic normochromic anemia
polycythemia vera
condition characterized by too many erythrocytes; blood becomes too thick to flow easily
through blood vessels
Kidney Anatomy
renal artery renal vein cortex, medulla, renal pelvis ureter renal pyramid nephron
Nephron Anatomy
1. glomerulus
2. bowman's capsule
3. collecting duct
4. tubule
5. capillary
Bladder anatomy - ureter - bladder -urethra
reabsorption (kidney)
movement of solutes from filtrate to blood
things taken back that were secreted of filtered by the kidney
what solutes are typically reabsorbed
glucose, ions, amino acids and urea
Where is most of the solute reabsorbed?
proximal convoluted tubule
What effects amount of water and solute reabsorption
ADH and aldosterone
secretion (kidney)
movement of solutes from blood to filtrate anywhere besides bowman's capsule
able to secrete salts, acids, bases and urea directly into the tubule via active or passive transport
what is secreted into the tubule depends on what the body needs at that time
ex. eating a lot of protein
nitrogen waste is a product of protein metabolism (ammonia)
liver converts ammonia to urea and the kidneys secreted urea into the tubule for secretion
also possible to eliminate products that are in excess in the blood -- potassium, hydrogen, metabolites or medications
can secrete things that were too larger to fit through the glomerulus's pore
filtration (kidney)
movement of solutes from blood to filtrate at bowman's capsule
20% of the blood that goes through the glomerulus is passed as filtrate into the bowman's capsule
depends on the hydrostatic and oncotic pressures/ starling forces between the glomerulus and
bowman's capsule
hydrostatic pressure: a lot higher in the glomerulus (move into the nephron/bowman's capsule)
oncotic pressure: higher in the blood/glomerulus than in the bowman's capsule (move into the
blood/glomerulus)
hydrostatic pressure is greater so there will be movement into bowman's capsule
usually favors the filtrate to go into the bowman's capsule
each persons full body is filtered about every 40 minutes
Conditions associated with renal failure - congenital abnormalities in the urethral tract development - kidney and bladder cancer - infections - glomerulonephritis - acute/ tubular necrosis - AKI
vesicoureteral reflux
Abnormal ureter-bladder connection allowing retrograde flow of urine from bladder to ureters
and/or kidneys
renal agenesis
unilatral or bilateral failure of the kidneys to develop in utero
Potter syndrome
Syndrome characterized by bilateral renal agenesis and incompatibility of live birth
Wilms tumor - Embryonal kidney tumor associated with defective tumor (WT) genes - Tumors are typically not clinically diagnosable until age 1-5 even though they are present at
birth
polycystic kidney disease - Mutant PKD genes cause fluid accumulation in kidney tubules "cysts" - The cysts can be the size of grapes or oranges and compress and destroy nephrons
Why are kidneys and bladders at high risk for cancer - UT is the route of excretion for many toxins and contains highly mitotic cells
Descending infection
The blood can carry bacteria from a focus of infection in another part of the body to the kidneys.
The bacteria then pass with the urine down the ureters to the bladder.
Ascending infection - urethra to bladder, and then to kidney - due to: bacteria from residual fecal contamination
glomerulonephritis
inflammation of the glomeruli of the kidney
tubular necrosis
the renal tubules cells are highly sensitive to low oxygen levels or presence of toxins and leads to
tubular necrosis
Causes of tubular necrosis - being post operative - severe sepsis - burns - trauma - contrast chemical use in medical imaging procedures
Pathophysiology of tubular necrosis - ischemia or nephrotoxin exposure occurs to the renal tubules - inflammation and tubular injury occur - cast formation and tubular obstruction occurs - tubular injury, leakage, increased glomerular pressure causes decreased capillary perfusion
further decrease in GFR occurs - oliguria results
Acute Kidney Injury
Sudden decline in kidney function with a decrease in GFR and an increase in plasma creatinine
and BUN levels -results in oliguria
Prerenal disease
decreased blood flow to and through the kidney
prerenal disease causes - hypotension - decreased cardia output - decreased blood volume
What are most cases of AKI caused by?
prerenal issues
Intrarenal disease
disease or damage within the kidney
Causes of intrarenal disease
ATN
Acute glomerulonephritis
postrenal disease
obstruction in the lower urinary tract that prevents urine flow from the kidneys
Causes of postrenal disease
BPH
Calculi
Inflammation
Tumors
Chronic kidney disease
progressive, irreversible deterioration in renal function
Labs: elevated BUN, Cr Phosphorus.
Rx: meds for hypertension, statins, epoetin, diuretics, calcium, LOW protein, low salt, restrict K,
phosphorus (no chicken, milk, legumes, carbonated drinks), dialysis.
kidney stones
Solid crystalline masses formed in the kidney, resulting from an excess of insoluble salts or uric
acid crystallizing in the urine; may become trapped anywhere along the urinary tract.
kidney stone treatment
high fluid intake, decreasing dietary intake of stone-forming substances, stone removal
causes of kidney stones
Family HX, chronic dehydration and infection, dietary factors, medications, imobility. Stoned
more common in men than women usually ages 30/50.
benign prostatic hyperplasia
benign growth of cells within the prostate gland
BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia)
Age-associated prostate gland enlargement that can cause urination difficulty.
BPH treatment - Alpha-adrenergic antagonists: terazosin, doxazosin - 5-alpha reductase inhibitors: finasteride, dutasteride - Transurethral prostatectomy - Open prostatectomy
pathogenesis of primary glomerulonephritis - infection triggers of immune response to cause formation of antibodies - antibodies form complexes with the pathogen that should be rapidly phagocytized by WBC - in glomerulonephritis the Ag-Ab complexes are not phagocytized in a timely manner and
continue to circulate in the blood stream - the Ag-Ab complexes get trapped in the narrow vasculature of the glomerular capillaries - build up of the Ag-Ab complexes signals that immune system and the complement system and
WBC infiltration of the site - Complement protein with enzymes released by phagocytic cells attack the complexes and cause
collateral damage to the glomerular area - Damage weakens thee glomerular structure and plasma proteins with blood leak into the tubular
system and pass out into the urine
clinical indicators of glomerulonephritis - proteinuria - hematuria - edema - azotemia - oliguria - coagulation cascade activation
Why is there edema with glomerulonephritis
the loss of albumin from the bloodstream reduces plasma oncotic pressure and results in edema
Azoetmia
presence of elevated plasma creatinine
Why is there azoetmia with renal failure?
Decreased GFR means waste is remains in the bloodstream and is not excreted
Why is there oliguria with renal failure?
when the glomerual structure has sustained enough damage the nephron structure is no longer
functional as a filtration unit
What happens in renal failure when the coagulation cascade is activated
fibrin is deposited in the glomerular structure and decreases capillary perfusion by causing
blockages and further decreases GFR further
blood hydrostatic pressure
the pressure produced by a fluid against a surface
filtration (kidney)
movement of solutes from blood to filtrate at bowman's capsule
20% of the blood that goes through the glomerulus is passed as filtrate into the bowman's capsule
depends on the hydrostatic and oncotic pressures/ starling forces between the glomerulus and
bowman's capsule
hydrostatic pressure: a lot higher in the glomerulus (move into the nephron/bowman's capsule)
oncotic pressure: higher in the blood/glomerulus than in the bowman's capsule (move into the
blood/glomerulus)
hydrostatic pressure is greater so there will be movement into bowman's capsule
usually favors the filtrate to go into the bowman's capsule
each persons full body is filtered about every 40 minutes
angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
an enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II
What does angiotensin II do?
increases blood pressure by vasoconstriction
Role of macrophages -In Innate:
1. Phagocytosis
PRR or opsonization w/ complement
2. Secrete Cytokines: Recruit more cells, inflammation, fever, etc. -In Adaptive:
1. Phagocytosis: opsonization with complement or Abs
2. Secrete cytokines: recruit more cells etc.
3. Antigen presentation: peptides from the broken down pathogen are displayed on surface of the
cell.
Content preview
NR 507 / NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology Final
Exam Review | Verified Answers | Latest Update
| Chamberlain University | Exam
Review & Practice Questions
Question:
Asthma
Answer
Chronic disease due to bronchoconstriction and an excessive inflammatory response in the
bronchioles
Question:
What are 5 s/s of asthma
Answer
coughing
wheezing
shortness of breath
rapid breathing
chest tightness
Question:
Pathophysiology of asthma (5)
Answer
,-airway inflammation, bronchial hyper-reactivity and smooth muscle spasm
-excess mucus production and accumulation
-hypertrophy of bronchial smooth muscle
-airflow obstruction
-decreased alveolar ventilation
Question:
Bronchioles
Answer
smaller passageways that originate from the bronchi that become the alveoli
Question:
3 layers of the bronchioles
Answer
innermost layer
middle layer - lamina propria
outermost layer
Question:
lamina propria
Answer
the middle layer of the bronchioles
,Question:
structure of the lamina propria
Answer
embedded with connective tissue cells and immune cells
Question:
purpose of the lamina propria
Answer
white blood cells are present to help protect the airways
Question:
How does the lamina propria effect the lungs in regards to asthma
Answer
the WBCs protective feature goes into overdrive causing an inflammatory response that damages
host tissue
Question:
What does the innermost layer of the bronchioles contain
Answer
columnar epithelial ells and mucus producing goblet cells
Question:
What does the outermost layer of the bronchioles contain
, Answer
smooth muscle cells
Question:
what does the outermost layer of the bronchioles do
Answer
control the airways ability to constrict and dilate
Question:
alveolar hyperinflation
Answer
When air is unable to move out of the alveolar like it should due to bronchial walls collapsing
around possible mucus plug thus trapping air inside
Question:
how does hyperinflation occur?
Answer
the ongoing inflammatory process of asthma produces mucus and pus plug that the bronchial
walls collapse around
Question:
Effect of hyperinflation of the alveolar
Answer