NSG552 / NSG 552 Exam 2 (Latest 2026/2027): Psychopharmacology | Grade A Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes
2026/2027 - 2026/2027 Official Exam
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NSG552 / NSG 552 Exam 2 (Latest 2026/2027): Psychopharmacology | Grade
A Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes 2026/2027 -
2026/2027 Official Exam
75 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Neurobiology & Psychopharmacology Substance Use Disorders
Antidepressants & Mood Stabilizers Psychopharmacology in Special Populations
Antipsychotics & Anxiolytics
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Neurobiology & Psychopharmacology | Q1-Q15 | NSG552 / NSG 552 Exam 2 (Latest 2026/2027): Psychopharmacology |
Grade A Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 Official Exam 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 32-year-old graduate student presents with persistent anxiety and difficulty concentrating. The psychiatric
nurse practitioner explains that the dysregulation of which neurotransmitter is most strongly implicated in
generalized anxiety disorder?
A. Deficient acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex
B. Excessive serotonin in the synaptic cleft
C. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) inhibitory dysfunction causing excessive neuronal excitability
D. Excessive dopamine activity in the mesolimbic pathway
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Generalized anxiety disorder is associated with GABA inhibitory dysfunction, leading to excessive neuronal
excitability and anxiety symptoms. Dopamine excess is more associated with psychosis, acetylcholine
deficiency with Alzheimer disease, and excessive serotonin is not a typical anxiety mechanism since SSRIs are
used to treat anxiety.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A 28-year-old male with newly diagnosed schizophrenia is started on an antipsychotic medication. The
psychiatric provider explains that therapeutic effects are primarily mediated through which dopamine
pathway?
A. Blockade of dopamine D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway reducing positive symptoms
B. Stimulation of dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway
C. Blockade of dopamine in the tuberoinfundibular pathway
D. Stimulation of dopamine in the mesocortical pathway
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Antipsychotic therapeutic effects come from blockade of dopamine D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway,
reducing positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Nigrostriatal blockade causes extrapyramidal
side effects, tuberoinfundibular blockade causes hyperprolactinemia, and mesocortical blockade may worsen
negative symptoms.
NSG552 / NSG 552 Exam 2 (Latest 2026/2027): Psychopharmacology | Grade A Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 Official Exam - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 40
, Q3 Question 3 of 75
A psychiatric-mental health nurse is teaching about the pharmacologic action of selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitors. Which best describes the primary mechanism by which SSRIs exert their antidepressant effect?
A. Blocking serotonin receptors postsynaptically
B. Blocking the reuptake of serotonin into the presynaptic neuron, increasing synaptic serotonin levels
C. Directly stimulating postsynaptic serotonin receptors
D. Inhibiting the enzymatic breakdown of serotonin by monoamine oxidase
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
SSRIs block the serotonin transporter, preventing reuptake of serotonin into the presynaptic neuron, which
increases synaptic serotonin levels and produces antidepressant effects over time. They do not directly
stimulate postsynaptic receptors, inhibit MAO (that is MAOIs), or block postsynaptic receptors.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
A 45-year-old patient with major depressive disorder is prescribed a medication that inhibits monoamine
oxidase. The nurse teaches the patient about dietary restrictions. Which mechanism explains why
tyramine-rich foods must be avoided with MAO inhibitors?
A. MAO normally metabolizes tyramine, so MAO inhibition allows tyramine to cause hypertensive crisis by releasing
norepinephrine
B. Tyramine directly antagonizes MAO inhibitors in the gut
C. Tyramine increases MAO production, requiring dietary restriction
D. Tyramine binds to MAO inhibitors and prevents absorption
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
MAO normally metabolizes tyramine in the gut and liver, so MAO inhibition allows dietary tyramine to enter
systemic circulation and displace norepinephrine from nerve terminals, causing potentially fatal hypertensive
crisis. Tyramine does not antagonize MAO inhibitors, increase MAO production, or bind to MAO inhibitors.
NSG552 / NSG 552 Exam 2 (Latest 2026/2027): Psychopharmacology | Grade A Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 Official Exam - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 40
, Q5 Question 5 of 75
A psychiatric nurse is explaining the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia to a nursing student. Which
statement best reflects current understanding of this hypothesis?
A. Excessive dopamine activity in the mesolimbic pathway contributes to positive symptoms, while deficient
dopamine in the mesocortical pathway contributes to negative symptoms
B. Excessive dopamine in all brain pathways causes all symptoms of schizophrenia
C. Deficient dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway causes positive symptoms
D. Dopamine plays no role in schizophrenia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The dopamine hypothesis proposes that excessive mesolimbic dopamine activity causes positive symptoms
(hallucinations, delusions), while deficient mesocortical dopamine activity contributes to negative symptoms
(apathy, flat affect). It is not excessive in all pathways, mesolimbic deficiency does not cause positive
symptoms, and dopamine clearly plays a role.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
A patient taking bupropion for depression asks how this medication differs from SSRIs. The nurse explains
that bupropion primarily inhibits the reuptake of which neurotransmitters?
A. Serotonin and norepinephrine equally
B. Serotonin only, similar to SSRIs
C. GABA and glutamate
D. Norepinephrine and dopamine, with minimal effect on serotonin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Bupropion is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI) with minimal effect on serotonin, which is
why it does not typically cause sexual dysfunction or weight gain like SSRIs. It is not a serotonin-norepinephrine
dual inhibitor, not an SSRI, and does not affect GABA or glutamate.
NSG552 / NSG 552 Exam 2 (Latest 2026/2027): Psychopharmacology | Grade A Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 Official Exam - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 40
2026/2027 - 2026/2027 Official Exam
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NSG552 / NSG 552 Exam 2 (Latest 2026/2027): Psychopharmacology | Grade
A Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes 2026/2027 -
2026/2027 Official Exam
75 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Neurobiology & Psychopharmacology Substance Use Disorders
Antidepressants & Mood Stabilizers Psychopharmacology in Special Populations
Antipsychotics & Anxiolytics
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Neurobiology & Psychopharmacology | Q1-Q15 | NSG552 / NSG 552 Exam 2 (Latest 2026/2027): Psychopharmacology |
Grade A Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 Official Exam 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 32-year-old graduate student presents with persistent anxiety and difficulty concentrating. The psychiatric
nurse practitioner explains that the dysregulation of which neurotransmitter is most strongly implicated in
generalized anxiety disorder?
A. Deficient acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex
B. Excessive serotonin in the synaptic cleft
C. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) inhibitory dysfunction causing excessive neuronal excitability
D. Excessive dopamine activity in the mesolimbic pathway
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Generalized anxiety disorder is associated with GABA inhibitory dysfunction, leading to excessive neuronal
excitability and anxiety symptoms. Dopamine excess is more associated with psychosis, acetylcholine
deficiency with Alzheimer disease, and excessive serotonin is not a typical anxiety mechanism since SSRIs are
used to treat anxiety.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A 28-year-old male with newly diagnosed schizophrenia is started on an antipsychotic medication. The
psychiatric provider explains that therapeutic effects are primarily mediated through which dopamine
pathway?
A. Blockade of dopamine D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway reducing positive symptoms
B. Stimulation of dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway
C. Blockade of dopamine in the tuberoinfundibular pathway
D. Stimulation of dopamine in the mesocortical pathway
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Antipsychotic therapeutic effects come from blockade of dopamine D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway,
reducing positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Nigrostriatal blockade causes extrapyramidal
side effects, tuberoinfundibular blockade causes hyperprolactinemia, and mesocortical blockade may worsen
negative symptoms.
NSG552 / NSG 552 Exam 2 (Latest 2026/2027): Psychopharmacology | Grade A Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 Official Exam - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 40
, Q3 Question 3 of 75
A psychiatric-mental health nurse is teaching about the pharmacologic action of selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitors. Which best describes the primary mechanism by which SSRIs exert their antidepressant effect?
A. Blocking serotonin receptors postsynaptically
B. Blocking the reuptake of serotonin into the presynaptic neuron, increasing synaptic serotonin levels
C. Directly stimulating postsynaptic serotonin receptors
D. Inhibiting the enzymatic breakdown of serotonin by monoamine oxidase
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
SSRIs block the serotonin transporter, preventing reuptake of serotonin into the presynaptic neuron, which
increases synaptic serotonin levels and produces antidepressant effects over time. They do not directly
stimulate postsynaptic receptors, inhibit MAO (that is MAOIs), or block postsynaptic receptors.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
A 45-year-old patient with major depressive disorder is prescribed a medication that inhibits monoamine
oxidase. The nurse teaches the patient about dietary restrictions. Which mechanism explains why
tyramine-rich foods must be avoided with MAO inhibitors?
A. MAO normally metabolizes tyramine, so MAO inhibition allows tyramine to cause hypertensive crisis by releasing
norepinephrine
B. Tyramine directly antagonizes MAO inhibitors in the gut
C. Tyramine increases MAO production, requiring dietary restriction
D. Tyramine binds to MAO inhibitors and prevents absorption
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
MAO normally metabolizes tyramine in the gut and liver, so MAO inhibition allows dietary tyramine to enter
systemic circulation and displace norepinephrine from nerve terminals, causing potentially fatal hypertensive
crisis. Tyramine does not antagonize MAO inhibitors, increase MAO production, or bind to MAO inhibitors.
NSG552 / NSG 552 Exam 2 (Latest 2026/2027): Psychopharmacology | Grade A Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 Official Exam - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 40
, Q5 Question 5 of 75
A psychiatric nurse is explaining the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia to a nursing student. Which
statement best reflects current understanding of this hypothesis?
A. Excessive dopamine activity in the mesolimbic pathway contributes to positive symptoms, while deficient
dopamine in the mesocortical pathway contributes to negative symptoms
B. Excessive dopamine in all brain pathways causes all symptoms of schizophrenia
C. Deficient dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway causes positive symptoms
D. Dopamine plays no role in schizophrenia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The dopamine hypothesis proposes that excessive mesolimbic dopamine activity causes positive symptoms
(hallucinations, delusions), while deficient mesocortical dopamine activity contributes to negative symptoms
(apathy, flat affect). It is not excessive in all pathways, mesolimbic deficiency does not cause positive
symptoms, and dopamine clearly plays a role.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
A patient taking bupropion for depression asks how this medication differs from SSRIs. The nurse explains
that bupropion primarily inhibits the reuptake of which neurotransmitters?
A. Serotonin and norepinephrine equally
B. Serotonin only, similar to SSRIs
C. GABA and glutamate
D. Norepinephrine and dopamine, with minimal effect on serotonin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Bupropion is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI) with minimal effect on serotonin, which is
why it does not typically cause sexual dysfunction or weight gain like SSRIs. It is not a serotonin-norepinephrine
dual inhibitor, not an SSRI, and does not affect GABA or glutamate.
NSG552 / NSG 552 Exam 2 (Latest 2026/2027): Psychopharmacology | Grade A Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 Official Exam - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 40
