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BSN 366 HESI RN Exit Exam V2 Actual 2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Questions | 100% Verified – Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded

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BSN 366 HESI RN Exit Exam V2 Actual 2026/2027 – 100% Correct Answers | NCLEX-Style Questions with Answers | Med-Surg, Maternity, Pediatrics, Mental Health, Pharmacology, Fundamentals | Graded A+ Verified | Critical Care, Leadership, Community Health, Prioritization, Delegation | Detailed Rationales | Verified Correct Answers – Pass Guaranteed – Instant Download

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BSN 366 HESI RN Exit Exam V2 (Latest Update 2026/2027) Questions and V...




OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM


BSN 366 HESI RN Exit Exam V2 (Latest Update 2026/2027)
Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A -
Nightingale 2026/2027
2026/2027 Official Exam

150 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION




TOPICS COVERED

Medical-Surgical Nursing Pharmacology & Medication Administration

Maternal-Newborn & Pediatric Nursing Fundamentals & Patient Safety

Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing Clinical Judgment & Case Scenarios




COVER PAGE - 1

, SECTION 1 | Medical-Surgical Nursing | Q1-Q25 | BSN 366 HESI RN Exit Exam V2 (Latest Update 2026/2027) Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Nightingale 2026/2027 2026/2027




Q1 Question 1 of 150
A 72-year-old male with heart failure is being discharged home. The nurse teaches him to
weigh himself each morning. Which instruction about daily weights is most important for
detecting fluid retention?
A. Call the provider if weight increases by 3 pounds in a day or 5 pounds in a week
B. Weigh weekly and record only if there is a change
C. Weigh after breakfast while wearing shoes for consistency
D. Skip weighing on days when feeling well


Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A weight gain of 3 pounds in a day or 5 pounds in a week indicates significant fluid retention requiring provider
notification and possible diuretic adjustment. Weekly weighing would delay detection of worsening heart failure,
so the alternative misstates the appropriate frequency.




Q2 Question 2 of 150
A 68-year-old male with COPD is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse
understands that low-flow oxygen is used in COPD because of which physiologic concern?
A. COPD patients require less oxygen due to increased lung compliance
B. High-flow oxygen may suppress the hypoxic respiratory drive in COPD patients
C. High-flow oxygen causes bronchospasm in COPD patients
D. Low-flow oxygen prevents mucous plugging in COPD patients


Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Many COPD patients rely on a hypoxic drive to breathe, so high-flow oxygen can suppress respiratory effort
and cause CO2 retention. The concern is not bronchospasm or mucous plugging but the risk of
hypoventilation, so the alternative misstates the rationale.




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, Q3 Question 3 of 150
A 58-year-old female presents to the emergency department with chest pain rated 8/10,
diaphoresis, and nausea. Which nursing action should be performed first?
A. Begin intravenous antibiotic therapy immediately
B. Obtain a detailed family history of cardiac disease
C. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin after assessing vital signs
D. Schedule an outpatient echocardiogram for the next day


Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The priority in suspected acute MI is assessing vital signs and administering nitroglycerin to reduce myocardial
oxygen demand while monitoring for hypotension. Family history and outpatient scheduling are not immediate
priorities, so the alternatives misorder the clinical steps.




Q4 Question 4 of 150
A 65-year-old male is brought to the ED with sudden right-sided weakness and slurred
speech that began 45 minutes ago. The nurse recognizes these findings as a potential
stroke. Which time-sensitive intervention is most critical?
A. Administration of oral antihypertensive medication
B. Initiation of physical therapy to prevent contractures
C. Insertion of a urinary catheter to monitor output
D. Administration of tissue plasminogen activator within the eligible time window


Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Acute ischemic stroke may be treated with tissue plasminogen activator if given within 3 to 4.5 hours of
symptom onset, making rapid identification and assessment critical. Physical therapy is important but not
time-critical, so the alternative misstates the priority intervention.




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, Q5 Question 5 of 150
A 45-year-old female with type 1 diabetes becomes diaphoretic, tremulous, and confused.
Her capillary glucose is 48 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrates such as juice or glucose tablets
B. Administer glucagon intramuscularly
C. Administer 50% dextrose intravenously
D. Recheck the glucose in 30 minutes without intervention


Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
An awake but confused hypoglycemic patient should receive 15 grams of fast-acting oral carbohydrates, with
glucose rechecked in 15 minutes. IV dextrose or IM glucagon is reserved for patients who cannot safely
swallow, so the alternatives misstate the first-line treatment.




Q6 Question 6 of 150
A 60-year-old male with acute kidney injury has a serum potassium of 6.2 mEq/L. Which food
choice should the nurse teach the patient to avoid?
A. Apples and berries
B. Bananas and oranges
C. White rice and pasta
D. Egg whites and skinless chicken


Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Bananas and oranges are high in potassium and should be avoided in hyperkalemia, while apples and berries
are lower-potassium fruits suitable for a renal diet. Egg whites and rice are also low-potassium options, so the
alternative misidentifies the food to restrict.




BSN 366 HESI RN Exit Exam V2 (Latest Update 2026/2027) Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - NightingalePage
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