NUR 6001 ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT – EXAM 2: QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) WITH RATIONALES | LATEST 2026 /
2027 UPDATE (WPU) COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW FOR WILLIAM
PATERSON UNIVERSITY
SECTION 1: GENERAL SURVEY AND VITAL SIGNS (Questions 1-50)
Question 1:
During a comprehensive health assessment, which component should the
advanced practice nurse perform FIRST?
A. Percussion
B. Palpation
C. Inspection
D. Auscultation
Correct Answer: C
Detailed Rationale: Inspection is the first step of the physical examination and
provides valuable baseline information about overall appearance, skin color,
symmetry, and body habitus before any hands-on techniques are performed.
Inspection allows the examiner to observe the patient's general appearance,
posture, movement, and any visible abnormalities. Palpation, percussion, and
auscultation follow in a sequence that varies by body system.
Question 2:
The normal adult resting pulse rate is:
A. 40-60 beats per minute
B. 60-100 beats per minute
C. 100-120 beats per minute
D. 120-140 beats per minute
Correct Answer: B
1
,Detailed Rationale: The normal adult resting heart rate ranges from 60 to 100
beats per minute. Bradycardia is defined as a heart rate less than 60 bpm, and
tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than 100 bpm. Factors such as age,
fitness level, and medications can influence heart rate.
Question 3:
A patient's blood pressure is recorded as 142/92 mmHg. This reading would be
classified as:
A. Normal
B. Elevated
C. Stage 1 Hypertension
D. Stage 2 Hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Detailed Rationale: According to the ACC/AHA guidelines, Stage 1 hypertension is
defined as systolic blood pressure between 130-139 mmHg or diastolic blood
pressure between 80-89 mmHg. Stage 2 hypertension is defined as systolic ≥140
mmHg or diastolic ≥90 mmHg. This patient's reading of 142/92 mmHg falls into
Stage 2 hypertension.
Question 4:
When assessing a patient's respiratory rate, which of the following is considered
normal for a resting adult?
A. 8-12 breaths per minute
B. 12-20 breaths per minute
C. 20-28 breaths per minute
D. 28-32 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: The normal respiratory rate for a resting adult is 12 to 20
breaths per minute. Tachypnea is defined as a respiratory rate greater than 20
2
,breaths per minute, and bradypnea is defined as a respiratory rate less than 12
breaths per minute.
Question 5:
Which of the following is the correct technique for obtaining an accurate oral
temperature?
A. Place the thermometer in the sublingual pocket for 3-5 minutes
B. Place the thermometer in the buccal cavity for 1 minute
C. Place the thermometer under the tongue with the lips closed
D. Place the thermometer in the sublingual pocket with the lips closed for 3-5
minutes
Correct Answer: D
Detailed Rationale: The correct technique for oral temperature measurement is to
place the thermometer in the sublingual pocket (under the tongue) and have the
patient close their lips (not teeth) for 3-5 minutes or until the device signals
completion. This ensures accurate measurement of core body temperature.
Question 6:
A patient presents with a pulse pressure of 40 mmHg. This is:
A. Normal
B. Narrowed
C. Widened
D. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: A
Detailed Rationale: Normal pulse pressure is approximately 30-50 mmHg. Pulse
pressure is calculated as systolic blood pressure minus diastolic blood pressure.
Narrowed pulse pressure (<30 mmHg) may indicate decreased stroke volume,
while widened pulse pressure (>50 mmHg) may indicate increased stroke volume
or aortic regurgitation.
3
, Question 7:
Orthostatic vital signs are most useful in evaluating:
A. Cardiac arrhythmias
B. Fluid volume status and autonomic function
C. Respiratory function
D. Neurological deficits
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Orthostatic (postural) vital signs are used to assess for fluid
volume deficits and autonomic nervous system dysfunction. A positive orthostatic
test is defined as a drop in systolic blood pressure ≥20 mmHg or a drop in diastolic
blood pressure ≥10 mmHg, or an increase in heart rate ≥20 bpm upon standing
from a supine position.
Question 8:
Which of the following pulse characteristics should be documented in a
cardiovascular assessment?
A. Rate, rhythm, and amplitude
B. Rate, amplitude, and contour
C. Rate, rhythm, and contour
D. Rate, rhythm, amplitude, and contour
Correct Answer: D
Detailed Rationale: Pulse assessment includes evaluation of rate (beats per
minute), rhythm (regular or irregular), amplitude (strength of pulsation, graded 0-
4+), and contour (shape of the pulse wave). Each of these characteristics provides
important information about cardiovascular function.
Question 9:
The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is calculated using which formula?
4
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) WITH RATIONALES | LATEST 2026 /
2027 UPDATE (WPU) COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW FOR WILLIAM
PATERSON UNIVERSITY
SECTION 1: GENERAL SURVEY AND VITAL SIGNS (Questions 1-50)
Question 1:
During a comprehensive health assessment, which component should the
advanced practice nurse perform FIRST?
A. Percussion
B. Palpation
C. Inspection
D. Auscultation
Correct Answer: C
Detailed Rationale: Inspection is the first step of the physical examination and
provides valuable baseline information about overall appearance, skin color,
symmetry, and body habitus before any hands-on techniques are performed.
Inspection allows the examiner to observe the patient's general appearance,
posture, movement, and any visible abnormalities. Palpation, percussion, and
auscultation follow in a sequence that varies by body system.
Question 2:
The normal adult resting pulse rate is:
A. 40-60 beats per minute
B. 60-100 beats per minute
C. 100-120 beats per minute
D. 120-140 beats per minute
Correct Answer: B
1
,Detailed Rationale: The normal adult resting heart rate ranges from 60 to 100
beats per minute. Bradycardia is defined as a heart rate less than 60 bpm, and
tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than 100 bpm. Factors such as age,
fitness level, and medications can influence heart rate.
Question 3:
A patient's blood pressure is recorded as 142/92 mmHg. This reading would be
classified as:
A. Normal
B. Elevated
C. Stage 1 Hypertension
D. Stage 2 Hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Detailed Rationale: According to the ACC/AHA guidelines, Stage 1 hypertension is
defined as systolic blood pressure between 130-139 mmHg or diastolic blood
pressure between 80-89 mmHg. Stage 2 hypertension is defined as systolic ≥140
mmHg or diastolic ≥90 mmHg. This patient's reading of 142/92 mmHg falls into
Stage 2 hypertension.
Question 4:
When assessing a patient's respiratory rate, which of the following is considered
normal for a resting adult?
A. 8-12 breaths per minute
B. 12-20 breaths per minute
C. 20-28 breaths per minute
D. 28-32 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: The normal respiratory rate for a resting adult is 12 to 20
breaths per minute. Tachypnea is defined as a respiratory rate greater than 20
2
,breaths per minute, and bradypnea is defined as a respiratory rate less than 12
breaths per minute.
Question 5:
Which of the following is the correct technique for obtaining an accurate oral
temperature?
A. Place the thermometer in the sublingual pocket for 3-5 minutes
B. Place the thermometer in the buccal cavity for 1 minute
C. Place the thermometer under the tongue with the lips closed
D. Place the thermometer in the sublingual pocket with the lips closed for 3-5
minutes
Correct Answer: D
Detailed Rationale: The correct technique for oral temperature measurement is to
place the thermometer in the sublingual pocket (under the tongue) and have the
patient close their lips (not teeth) for 3-5 minutes or until the device signals
completion. This ensures accurate measurement of core body temperature.
Question 6:
A patient presents with a pulse pressure of 40 mmHg. This is:
A. Normal
B. Narrowed
C. Widened
D. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: A
Detailed Rationale: Normal pulse pressure is approximately 30-50 mmHg. Pulse
pressure is calculated as systolic blood pressure minus diastolic blood pressure.
Narrowed pulse pressure (<30 mmHg) may indicate decreased stroke volume,
while widened pulse pressure (>50 mmHg) may indicate increased stroke volume
or aortic regurgitation.
3
, Question 7:
Orthostatic vital signs are most useful in evaluating:
A. Cardiac arrhythmias
B. Fluid volume status and autonomic function
C. Respiratory function
D. Neurological deficits
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Orthostatic (postural) vital signs are used to assess for fluid
volume deficits and autonomic nervous system dysfunction. A positive orthostatic
test is defined as a drop in systolic blood pressure ≥20 mmHg or a drop in diastolic
blood pressure ≥10 mmHg, or an increase in heart rate ≥20 bpm upon standing
from a supine position.
Question 8:
Which of the following pulse characteristics should be documented in a
cardiovascular assessment?
A. Rate, rhythm, and amplitude
B. Rate, amplitude, and contour
C. Rate, rhythm, and contour
D. Rate, rhythm, amplitude, and contour
Correct Answer: D
Detailed Rationale: Pulse assessment includes evaluation of rate (beats per
minute), rhythm (regular or irregular), amplitude (strength of pulsation, graded 0-
4+), and contour (shape of the pulse wave). Each of these characteristics provides
important information about cardiovascular function.
Question 9:
The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is calculated using which formula?
4
