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NUR 6001 Advanced Health Assessment – Exam 2:
Questions & Answers (Verified Answers) With Explanations
| Latest Update(WPU)
Comprehensive Review for William Paterson University
This comprehensive test bank contains 450 exam-style questions with Detailed
Rationales, designed to prepare students for the NUR 6001 Advanced Health Assessment
Exam 2 at William Paterson University. Exam 2 covers physical examination techniques
and systems assessment including vital signs, inspection, palpation, percussion,
auscultation, cranial nerve assessment, cardiovascular evaluation, respiratory assessment,
gastrointestinal assessment, and interpretation of abnormal findings . Each question
includes the Correct Answer with a Detailed Rationale explaining the underlying
pathophysiology, clinical reasoning, and evidence-based practice guidelines. The content
is organized by body systems and follows the sequence typically tested in graduate-level
advanced health assessment courses .
SECTION 1: GENERAL SURVEY AND VITAL SIGNS (Questions 1-50)
Question 1:
During a comprehensive health assessment, which component should the advanced
practice nurse perform FIRST?
A. Percussion
B. Palpation
C. Inspection
D. Auscultation
Correct Answer: C
Detailed Rationale: Inspection is the first step of the physical examination and provides
valuable baseline information about overall appearance, skin color, symmetry, and body
habitus before any hands-on techniques are performed . Inspection allows the examiner
to observe the patient's general appearance, posture, movement, and any visible
abnormalities. Palpation, percussion, and auscultation follow in a sequence that varies by
body system.
Question 2:
The normal adult resting pulse rate is:
A. 40-60 beats per minute
B. 60-100 beats per minute
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C. 100-120 beats per minute
D. 120-140 beats per minute
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Normal adult heart rate is 60-100 beats per minute. Bradycardia is
defined as <60 bpm, and tachycardia is >100 bpm .
Question 3:
The normal adult resting respiratory rate is:
A. 8-12 breaths per minute
B. 12-20 breaths per minute
C. 20-30 breaths per minute
D. 30-40 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Normal respiratory rate is 12-20 breaths per minute. Bradypnea is <12;
tachypnea is >20 .
Question 4:
The normal adult oral temperature range is approximately:
A. 96.0°F – 98.0°F
B. 97.0°F – 99.0°F (36.1°C – 37.2°C)
C. 99.0°F – 101.0°F
D. 100.0°F – 102.0°F
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Normal oral temperature varies but is typically 97.0-99.0°F (36.1-
37.2°C). Rectal temperatures are 0.5°C higher; axillary are 0.5°C lower .
Question 5:
The first Korotkoff sound corresponds to:
A. Diastolic pressure
B. Systolic pressure
C. Mean arterial pressure
D. Pulse pressure
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: The first appearance of clear tapping sounds (phase I) marks the
systolic pressure. The disappearance of sounds (phase V) indicates diastolic pressure .
Question 6:
The normal adult blood pressure range is:
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A. Systolic <120 and Diastolic <80 mmHg
B. Systolic 120-139 and Diastolic 80-89 mmHg
C. Systolic 140-159 and Diastolic 90-99 mmHg
D. Systolic 160+ and Diastolic 100+ mmHg
Correct Answer: A
Detailed Rationale: Normal blood pressure is defined as systolic <120 mmHg and diastolic
<80 mmHg. Elevated BP is 120-129/<80, and hypertension is ≥130/≥80 according to
current guidelines.
Question 7:
Which blood pressure cuff size should be used for an adult with an arm circumference of
38 cm?
A. Standard adult cuff
B. Large adult cuff
C. Thigh cuff
D. Pediatric cuff
Correct Answer: C
Detailed Rationale: The bladder width should encircle 80% of the arm. For an arm
circumference of 38 cm, a large adult or thigh cuff should be used to ensure accurate
reading .
Question 8:
During the general survey, the NP observes a patient with a BMI of 32, poor hygiene, flat
affect, and slow movements. These observations are part of which component of the
assessment?
A. Vital signs
B. General survey
C. Review of systems
D. Focused examination
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: The general survey is the initial observation of the patient and
includes physical appearance (age, sex, level of consciousness, skin color, facial features),
body structure/mobility (stature, nutrition, symmetry), and behavior (mood, affect,
speech) .
Question 9:
A 25-year-old female presents with fever. Her tympanic temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F).
The NP knows that tympanic temperature measurement:
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A. Is always 1°F lower than oral temperature
B. Reflects core body temperature
C. Should not be used in adults
D. Is less accurate than axillary temperature
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Tympanic (ear) temperature measurement reflects core body
temperature because the tympanic membrane shares blood supply with the
hypothalamus (the body's temperature control center) .
Question 10:
Normal capillary refill time is:
A. Greater than 5 seconds
B. 4-5 seconds
C. Less than 3 seconds
D. Greater than 10 seconds
Correct Answer: C
Detailed Rationale: Normal capillary refill time is <3 seconds, indicating adequate
peripheral perfusion. Prolonged refill (>3 seconds) suggests decreased peripheral
perfusion.
Question 11:
The most reliable indicator of pain is:
A. Changes in vital signs
B. The patient's self-report
C. Physical examination findings
D. Family report
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Pain is subjective; the patient's self-report is the gold standard for
pain assessment .
Question 12:
The PQRST mnemonic for pain assessment stands for:
A. Provocation/Palliation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Timing
B. Position, Quantity, Radiation, Sensation, Tenderness
C. Pattern, Quality, Response, Site, Time
D. Palpation, Question, Response, Site, Tenderness
Correct Answer: A
Detailed Rationale: PQRST is a standard pain assessment tool: Provocation/Palliation,
Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Timing .
NUR 6001 Advanced Health Assessment – Exam 2:
Questions & Answers (Verified Answers) With Explanations
| Latest Update(WPU)
Comprehensive Review for William Paterson University
This comprehensive test bank contains 450 exam-style questions with Detailed
Rationales, designed to prepare students for the NUR 6001 Advanced Health Assessment
Exam 2 at William Paterson University. Exam 2 covers physical examination techniques
and systems assessment including vital signs, inspection, palpation, percussion,
auscultation, cranial nerve assessment, cardiovascular evaluation, respiratory assessment,
gastrointestinal assessment, and interpretation of abnormal findings . Each question
includes the Correct Answer with a Detailed Rationale explaining the underlying
pathophysiology, clinical reasoning, and evidence-based practice guidelines. The content
is organized by body systems and follows the sequence typically tested in graduate-level
advanced health assessment courses .
SECTION 1: GENERAL SURVEY AND VITAL SIGNS (Questions 1-50)
Question 1:
During a comprehensive health assessment, which component should the advanced
practice nurse perform FIRST?
A. Percussion
B. Palpation
C. Inspection
D. Auscultation
Correct Answer: C
Detailed Rationale: Inspection is the first step of the physical examination and provides
valuable baseline information about overall appearance, skin color, symmetry, and body
habitus before any hands-on techniques are performed . Inspection allows the examiner
to observe the patient's general appearance, posture, movement, and any visible
abnormalities. Palpation, percussion, and auscultation follow in a sequence that varies by
body system.
Question 2:
The normal adult resting pulse rate is:
A. 40-60 beats per minute
B. 60-100 beats per minute
,2|Page
C. 100-120 beats per minute
D. 120-140 beats per minute
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Normal adult heart rate is 60-100 beats per minute. Bradycardia is
defined as <60 bpm, and tachycardia is >100 bpm .
Question 3:
The normal adult resting respiratory rate is:
A. 8-12 breaths per minute
B. 12-20 breaths per minute
C. 20-30 breaths per minute
D. 30-40 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Normal respiratory rate is 12-20 breaths per minute. Bradypnea is <12;
tachypnea is >20 .
Question 4:
The normal adult oral temperature range is approximately:
A. 96.0°F – 98.0°F
B. 97.0°F – 99.0°F (36.1°C – 37.2°C)
C. 99.0°F – 101.0°F
D. 100.0°F – 102.0°F
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Normal oral temperature varies but is typically 97.0-99.0°F (36.1-
37.2°C). Rectal temperatures are 0.5°C higher; axillary are 0.5°C lower .
Question 5:
The first Korotkoff sound corresponds to:
A. Diastolic pressure
B. Systolic pressure
C. Mean arterial pressure
D. Pulse pressure
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: The first appearance of clear tapping sounds (phase I) marks the
systolic pressure. The disappearance of sounds (phase V) indicates diastolic pressure .
Question 6:
The normal adult blood pressure range is:
,3|Page
A. Systolic <120 and Diastolic <80 mmHg
B. Systolic 120-139 and Diastolic 80-89 mmHg
C. Systolic 140-159 and Diastolic 90-99 mmHg
D. Systolic 160+ and Diastolic 100+ mmHg
Correct Answer: A
Detailed Rationale: Normal blood pressure is defined as systolic <120 mmHg and diastolic
<80 mmHg. Elevated BP is 120-129/<80, and hypertension is ≥130/≥80 according to
current guidelines.
Question 7:
Which blood pressure cuff size should be used for an adult with an arm circumference of
38 cm?
A. Standard adult cuff
B. Large adult cuff
C. Thigh cuff
D. Pediatric cuff
Correct Answer: C
Detailed Rationale: The bladder width should encircle 80% of the arm. For an arm
circumference of 38 cm, a large adult or thigh cuff should be used to ensure accurate
reading .
Question 8:
During the general survey, the NP observes a patient with a BMI of 32, poor hygiene, flat
affect, and slow movements. These observations are part of which component of the
assessment?
A. Vital signs
B. General survey
C. Review of systems
D. Focused examination
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: The general survey is the initial observation of the patient and
includes physical appearance (age, sex, level of consciousness, skin color, facial features),
body structure/mobility (stature, nutrition, symmetry), and behavior (mood, affect,
speech) .
Question 9:
A 25-year-old female presents with fever. Her tympanic temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F).
The NP knows that tympanic temperature measurement:
, 4|Page
A. Is always 1°F lower than oral temperature
B. Reflects core body temperature
C. Should not be used in adults
D. Is less accurate than axillary temperature
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Tympanic (ear) temperature measurement reflects core body
temperature because the tympanic membrane shares blood supply with the
hypothalamus (the body's temperature control center) .
Question 10:
Normal capillary refill time is:
A. Greater than 5 seconds
B. 4-5 seconds
C. Less than 3 seconds
D. Greater than 10 seconds
Correct Answer: C
Detailed Rationale: Normal capillary refill time is <3 seconds, indicating adequate
peripheral perfusion. Prolonged refill (>3 seconds) suggests decreased peripheral
perfusion.
Question 11:
The most reliable indicator of pain is:
A. Changes in vital signs
B. The patient's self-report
C. Physical examination findings
D. Family report
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Pain is subjective; the patient's self-report is the gold standard for
pain assessment .
Question 12:
The PQRST mnemonic for pain assessment stands for:
A. Provocation/Palliation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Timing
B. Position, Quantity, Radiation, Sensation, Tenderness
C. Pattern, Quality, Response, Site, Time
D. Palpation, Question, Response, Site, Tenderness
Correct Answer: A
Detailed Rationale: PQRST is a standard pain assessment tool: Provocation/Palliation,
Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Timing .
