NGN NCLEX / NCLEX NGN RN ACTUAL EXAM
LATEST TEST BANK QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | A GRADE
Aligned with 2026-2027 NCSBN NCLEX-RN Test Plan and Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) Standards
Volume NGN Item Types Cognitive Levels Sections
MC, SATA, Matrix, Bowtie, Cloze, 20% Recall / 45% Application /
225 Questions 8 Sections
Sequencing, Drag & Drop, Hot Spot 35% Analysis
Client Needs – Safe and Effective Care Environment (Management of Care +
Safety/Infection Control)
Q1: A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is assigning tasks to the nursing team for the shift. Which of
the following tasks should the nurse delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
CJMM Function: Generate Solutions
A. Administering an oral analgesic to a client reporting pain 4/10
B. Obtaining a urine specimen from a client with an indwelling urinary catheter [CORRECT]
C. Performing an initial admission assessment on a newly assigned client
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of a new antihypertensive medication
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining a urine specimen from an indwelling catheter is a standardized, repetitive task within UAP scope of practice
(NCSBN Delegation Guidelines). Administering medications, performing initial assessments, and evaluating outcomes require
RN-level education and clinical judgment and cannot be delegated to UAPs.
Q2: A client is scheduled for a right total knee arthroplasty. The surgeon has explained the procedure and the
client signed the consent form 3 days ago. On the day of surgery, the client tells the nurse, 'I changed my
mind; I do not want this surgery anymore.' What is the nurse's priority action?
CJMM Function: Take Action
A. Notify the surgeon immediately and document the client's refusal [CORRECT]
B. Remind the client that they already signed the consent form
C. Explain the benefits of the surgery to persuade the client to proceed
D. Ask the client's family to talk them into having the surgery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client has the legal right to withdraw informed consent at any time before a procedure. The nurse must respect client
autonomy, notify the surgeon promptly, and document the refusal. Persuading the client, relying on a previously signed form, or
involving family to override the client's decision violates ethical and legal standards (ANA Code of Ethics).
Q3: An 82-year-old client with end-stage COPD is admitted with acute respiratory distress. The client has a
valid Do-Not-Resuscitate (DNR) order and a living will stating no mechanical ventilation. The client's son
arrives and demands 'everything possible be done.' What should the nurse do first?
CJMM Function: Prioritize Hypotheses
A. Follow the son's request and initiate full resuscitative measures
B. Explain that the advance directive is legally binding and must be followed
C. Notify the healthcare provider and request clarification of the current code status [CORRECT]
D. Ask the son to produce documentation of healthcare power of attorney
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should first notify the healthcare provider to clarify the code status and resolve the conflict between the
advance directive and the family's wishes. Advance directives are legally valid documents, but conflict resolution requires provider
, involvement. The nurse should not unilaterally ignore the DNR or act on the son's demand without provider direction (ANA Position
Statement on Advance Directives).
Q4: A nurse is caring for a client who is a well-known local politician. The nurse's friend, who works as a
reporter, calls the nursing station and asks, 'Can you tell me if the senator is a patient here and how they are
doing?' What is the nurse's best response?
CJMM Function: Take Action
A. Confirm the client is a patient but decline to discuss details
B. Tell the reporter that no information can be confirmed or denied [CORRECT]
C. Transfer the call to the hospital's public relations department
D. Provide a brief statement that the client is in stable condition
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Under HIPAA, healthcare workers cannot confirm or deny a patient's presence in a facility without written
authorization. Even confirming existence of a patient constitutes a disclosure of protected health information (PHI). Transferring to
PR is inappropriate unless the institution has a specific media policy, and the nurse must not provide any clinical information
(HIPAA Privacy Rule, 45 CFR § 164.512).
Q5: [SATA - Select All That Apply] A nurse is caring for an 86-year-old client with dementia who is
attempting to pull out a peripheral IV line. The healthcare provider has ordered bilateral soft wrist restraints.
Which of the following actions are appropriate for the nurse to take? (Select all that apply.)
CJMM Function: Take Action
A. Secure the restraints to the movable portion of the bed frame
B. Assess the client's circulation, sensation, and motion in the restrained extremities every 2 hours
[CORRECT]
C. Remove the restraints at least every 2 hours to allow for range-of-motion exercises [CORRECT]
D. Tie the restraints with a quick-release knot [CORRECT]
E. Document the client's behavior that necessitated restraint use and the alternative interventions attempted
[CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B, C, D, E
Rationale: Restraints must be secured to the non-movable (fixed) portion of the bed frame, not the movable part, to prevent injury
(A is incorrect). The nurse must assess circulation, sensation, and motion every 2 hours (B), remove restraints at least every 2 hours
for ROM (C), use a quick-release knot for safety (D), and document the clinical rationale and alternatives tried (E). These
standards are based on CMS and Joint Commission restraint regulations.
Q6: A nurse is completing a fall risk assessment on a 78-year-old client admitted for pneumonia. The client's
Morse Fall Scale score is 85 (high risk). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
CJMM Function: Generate Solutions
A. Place the client in a room near the nurses' station with a low bed [CORRECT]
B. Encourage the client to use the call light before getting up unassisted
C. Keep all four side rails raised at all times
D. Restrict the client to bed rest until discharge
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A Morse Fall Scale score of 45 or greater indicates high fall risk. Interventions include placing the client near the nurses'
station, using a low bed, and implementing a fall prevention protocol. Keeping all four side rails up is considered a restraint and
requires an order. Bed rest restriction is unnecessary for pneumonia and increases complications. While encouraging call light use is
appropriate, it alone is insufficient for a high-risk score (Morse Fall Scale Guidelines).
Q7: A nurse is preparing to empty a bedside commode for a client with Clostridioides difficile infection.
Which personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse don prior to this task?
CJMM Function: Take Action
A. Gloves and a surgical mask
B. Gloves and a gown [CORRECT]
, C. Gloves, gown, and N95 respirator
D. Gloves, gown, and eye protection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C. difficile requires contact precautions in addition to standard precautions. The nurse should wear gloves and a gown
when handling contaminated items or having direct contact with the client. A surgical mask and N95 respirator are not required as
C. difficile is not transmitted via the airborne or droplet route. Eye protection is not needed for emptying a commode (CDC
Healthcare Infection Control Practices Advisory Committee).
Q8: A client with a persistent cough, night sweats, and a positive sputum acid-fast bacilli smear is admitted to
the medical unit. The nurse anticipates which type of isolation precautions?
CJMM Function: Recognize Cues
A. Standard precautions only
B. Droplet precautions with a surgical mask within 3 feet
C. Contact precautions with gloves and gown
D. Airborne precautions in a negative-pressure airborne infection isolation room (AIIR) [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A positive AFB smear strongly suggests pulmonary tuberculosis, which requires airborne precautions including
placement in a negative-pressure AIIR with the door closed. Healthcare workers must wear an N95 respirator or higher. Standard
precautions alone, droplet, or contact precautions are insufficient for TB, which spreads via inhalation of airborne droplet nuclei
(CDC TB Guidelines).
Q9: A 4-year-old child is admitted with meningococcal meningitis (Neisseria meningitidis). In addition to
standard precautions, which isolation precautions should the nurse implement?
CJMM Function: Analyze Cues
A. Airborne precautions with N95 respirator
B. Droplet precautions with a surgical mask within 6 feet [CORRECT]
C. Contact precautions with gloves and gown
D. Reverse (protective) isolation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: N. meningitidis is transmitted via large respiratory droplets, requiring droplet precautions. The nurse should wear a
surgical mask when within 6 feet of the client and place a mask on the client during transport. Airborne precautions with N95 are
not indicated, and contact precautions alone are insufficient. Prophylactic antibiotics for close contacts are also recommended
(CDC Meningococcal Disease Guidelines).
Q10: A nurse discovers a small fire in a wastebasket in a client's room. The client is in bed and able to walk.
Following the RACE protocol, what should the nurse do first?
CJMM Function: Prioritize Hypotheses
A. Activate the fire alarm using the nearest pull station
B. Confine the fire by closing the room door and turning off oxygen
C. Extinguish the fire using the nearest fire extinguisher
D. Rescue the client by moving them to a safe area [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The RACE protocol prioritizes life safety: Rescue, Activate alarm, Contain/confine, Extinguish/Evacuate. The nurse
must first rescue and move the client to safety before addressing the fire. While activating the alarm and confining the fire are
critical next steps, client safety is always the first priority (Joint Commission Environment of Care Standards).
Q11: A nurse is using a fire extinguisher to put out a small electrical fire in a medication room. The nurse
should follow the PASS acronym. What does the 'S' in PASS stand for?
CJMM Function: Recognize Cues
A. Squeeze the handle of the extinguisher
B. Sweep the nozzle from side to side at the base of the fire [CORRECT]
C. Stand at least 10 feet from the fire
, D. Shut off the electrical power supply first
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The PASS acronym stands for Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from side to side.
The 'S' refers to sweeping the extinguisher nozzle at the base of the fire to smother it effectively. While shutting off electrical power
is important for electrical fires, it is not part of the PASS acronym itself (OSHA Fire Safety Standards).
Q12: A nurse is performing triage at the scene of a mass casualty incident using the START (Simple Triage
and Rapid Treatment) system. A victim is found unconscious with no spontaneous breathing. After opening
the airway, the victim begins breathing at 8 breaths per minute. How should the nurse categorize this victim?
CJMM Function: Analyze Cues
A. Immediate (Red) [CORRECT]
B. Delayed (Yellow)
C. Minor (Green)
D. Expectant/Deceased (Black)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the START triage system, patients who are not breathing initially but begin breathing after airway opening are
classified as Immediate (Red), meaning they require urgent life-saving intervention. Their respiratory rate of 8 is below the
threshold of 30 but they required airway intervention, placing them in the immediate category. Delayed (Yellow) patients can wait
up to 1 hour; Minor (Green) can walk; Expectant/Black are unlikely to survive (START Triage Protocol).
Q13: A nurse is planning care for four clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assign
to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)?
CJMM Function: Generate Solutions
A. A client 2 days post-op cholecystectomy requiring wound care and medication administration [CORRECT]
B. A client newly admitted with chest pain who needs a comprehensive nursing assessment
C. A client receiving a blood transfusion for the first time who needs continuous monitoring
D. A client with acute respiratory failure whose condition is rapidly deteriorating
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An LPN can provide wound care and administer medications to a stable post-operative client under RN supervision. A
newly admitted client with chest pain requires a comprehensive RN assessment, a first-time blood transfusion requires RN
evaluation for adverse reactions, and a deteriorating client requires RN-level critical thinking. LPNs can manage stable, predictable
clients with established care plans (NCSBN Delegation Guidelines).
Q14: [SATA - Select All That Apply] According to CDC hand hygiene guidelines, which of the following
situations require the nurse to perform hand hygiene? (Select all that apply.)
CJMM Function: Recognize Cues
A. Before touching a client [CORRECT]
B. After removing gloves [CORRECT]
C. After using the restroom [CORRECT]
D. Before handling a clean dressing [CORRECT]
E. Between caring for two clients in the same room [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: The WHO '5 Moments for Hand Hygiene' include before touching a patient, before clean/aseptic procedures, after body
fluid exposure, after touching a patient, and after touching patient surroundings. All listed situations require hand hygiene: before
client contact (A), after glove removal (B), after restroom use (C), before handling clean supplies (D), and between clients (E).
Hand hygiene is the single most effective infection prevention measure (CDC/WHO Hand Hygiene Guidelines).
Q15: A nurse has applied wrist restraints to a client who is intubated and attempting to self-extubate. Which
of the following is required for restraint documentation?
CJMM Function: Evaluate Outcomes
A. The type of restraint and the exact time applied and removed each shift [CORRECT]
B. A signed consent form from the client's next of kin
LATEST TEST BANK QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | A GRADE
Aligned with 2026-2027 NCSBN NCLEX-RN Test Plan and Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) Standards
Volume NGN Item Types Cognitive Levels Sections
MC, SATA, Matrix, Bowtie, Cloze, 20% Recall / 45% Application /
225 Questions 8 Sections
Sequencing, Drag & Drop, Hot Spot 35% Analysis
Client Needs – Safe and Effective Care Environment (Management of Care +
Safety/Infection Control)
Q1: A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is assigning tasks to the nursing team for the shift. Which of
the following tasks should the nurse delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
CJMM Function: Generate Solutions
A. Administering an oral analgesic to a client reporting pain 4/10
B. Obtaining a urine specimen from a client with an indwelling urinary catheter [CORRECT]
C. Performing an initial admission assessment on a newly assigned client
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of a new antihypertensive medication
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining a urine specimen from an indwelling catheter is a standardized, repetitive task within UAP scope of practice
(NCSBN Delegation Guidelines). Administering medications, performing initial assessments, and evaluating outcomes require
RN-level education and clinical judgment and cannot be delegated to UAPs.
Q2: A client is scheduled for a right total knee arthroplasty. The surgeon has explained the procedure and the
client signed the consent form 3 days ago. On the day of surgery, the client tells the nurse, 'I changed my
mind; I do not want this surgery anymore.' What is the nurse's priority action?
CJMM Function: Take Action
A. Notify the surgeon immediately and document the client's refusal [CORRECT]
B. Remind the client that they already signed the consent form
C. Explain the benefits of the surgery to persuade the client to proceed
D. Ask the client's family to talk them into having the surgery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client has the legal right to withdraw informed consent at any time before a procedure. The nurse must respect client
autonomy, notify the surgeon promptly, and document the refusal. Persuading the client, relying on a previously signed form, or
involving family to override the client's decision violates ethical and legal standards (ANA Code of Ethics).
Q3: An 82-year-old client with end-stage COPD is admitted with acute respiratory distress. The client has a
valid Do-Not-Resuscitate (DNR) order and a living will stating no mechanical ventilation. The client's son
arrives and demands 'everything possible be done.' What should the nurse do first?
CJMM Function: Prioritize Hypotheses
A. Follow the son's request and initiate full resuscitative measures
B. Explain that the advance directive is legally binding and must be followed
C. Notify the healthcare provider and request clarification of the current code status [CORRECT]
D. Ask the son to produce documentation of healthcare power of attorney
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should first notify the healthcare provider to clarify the code status and resolve the conflict between the
advance directive and the family's wishes. Advance directives are legally valid documents, but conflict resolution requires provider
, involvement. The nurse should not unilaterally ignore the DNR or act on the son's demand without provider direction (ANA Position
Statement on Advance Directives).
Q4: A nurse is caring for a client who is a well-known local politician. The nurse's friend, who works as a
reporter, calls the nursing station and asks, 'Can you tell me if the senator is a patient here and how they are
doing?' What is the nurse's best response?
CJMM Function: Take Action
A. Confirm the client is a patient but decline to discuss details
B. Tell the reporter that no information can be confirmed or denied [CORRECT]
C. Transfer the call to the hospital's public relations department
D. Provide a brief statement that the client is in stable condition
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Under HIPAA, healthcare workers cannot confirm or deny a patient's presence in a facility without written
authorization. Even confirming existence of a patient constitutes a disclosure of protected health information (PHI). Transferring to
PR is inappropriate unless the institution has a specific media policy, and the nurse must not provide any clinical information
(HIPAA Privacy Rule, 45 CFR § 164.512).
Q5: [SATA - Select All That Apply] A nurse is caring for an 86-year-old client with dementia who is
attempting to pull out a peripheral IV line. The healthcare provider has ordered bilateral soft wrist restraints.
Which of the following actions are appropriate for the nurse to take? (Select all that apply.)
CJMM Function: Take Action
A. Secure the restraints to the movable portion of the bed frame
B. Assess the client's circulation, sensation, and motion in the restrained extremities every 2 hours
[CORRECT]
C. Remove the restraints at least every 2 hours to allow for range-of-motion exercises [CORRECT]
D. Tie the restraints with a quick-release knot [CORRECT]
E. Document the client's behavior that necessitated restraint use and the alternative interventions attempted
[CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B, C, D, E
Rationale: Restraints must be secured to the non-movable (fixed) portion of the bed frame, not the movable part, to prevent injury
(A is incorrect). The nurse must assess circulation, sensation, and motion every 2 hours (B), remove restraints at least every 2 hours
for ROM (C), use a quick-release knot for safety (D), and document the clinical rationale and alternatives tried (E). These
standards are based on CMS and Joint Commission restraint regulations.
Q6: A nurse is completing a fall risk assessment on a 78-year-old client admitted for pneumonia. The client's
Morse Fall Scale score is 85 (high risk). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
CJMM Function: Generate Solutions
A. Place the client in a room near the nurses' station with a low bed [CORRECT]
B. Encourage the client to use the call light before getting up unassisted
C. Keep all four side rails raised at all times
D. Restrict the client to bed rest until discharge
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A Morse Fall Scale score of 45 or greater indicates high fall risk. Interventions include placing the client near the nurses'
station, using a low bed, and implementing a fall prevention protocol. Keeping all four side rails up is considered a restraint and
requires an order. Bed rest restriction is unnecessary for pneumonia and increases complications. While encouraging call light use is
appropriate, it alone is insufficient for a high-risk score (Morse Fall Scale Guidelines).
Q7: A nurse is preparing to empty a bedside commode for a client with Clostridioides difficile infection.
Which personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse don prior to this task?
CJMM Function: Take Action
A. Gloves and a surgical mask
B. Gloves and a gown [CORRECT]
, C. Gloves, gown, and N95 respirator
D. Gloves, gown, and eye protection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C. difficile requires contact precautions in addition to standard precautions. The nurse should wear gloves and a gown
when handling contaminated items or having direct contact with the client. A surgical mask and N95 respirator are not required as
C. difficile is not transmitted via the airborne or droplet route. Eye protection is not needed for emptying a commode (CDC
Healthcare Infection Control Practices Advisory Committee).
Q8: A client with a persistent cough, night sweats, and a positive sputum acid-fast bacilli smear is admitted to
the medical unit. The nurse anticipates which type of isolation precautions?
CJMM Function: Recognize Cues
A. Standard precautions only
B. Droplet precautions with a surgical mask within 3 feet
C. Contact precautions with gloves and gown
D. Airborne precautions in a negative-pressure airborne infection isolation room (AIIR) [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A positive AFB smear strongly suggests pulmonary tuberculosis, which requires airborne precautions including
placement in a negative-pressure AIIR with the door closed. Healthcare workers must wear an N95 respirator or higher. Standard
precautions alone, droplet, or contact precautions are insufficient for TB, which spreads via inhalation of airborne droplet nuclei
(CDC TB Guidelines).
Q9: A 4-year-old child is admitted with meningococcal meningitis (Neisseria meningitidis). In addition to
standard precautions, which isolation precautions should the nurse implement?
CJMM Function: Analyze Cues
A. Airborne precautions with N95 respirator
B. Droplet precautions with a surgical mask within 6 feet [CORRECT]
C. Contact precautions with gloves and gown
D. Reverse (protective) isolation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: N. meningitidis is transmitted via large respiratory droplets, requiring droplet precautions. The nurse should wear a
surgical mask when within 6 feet of the client and place a mask on the client during transport. Airborne precautions with N95 are
not indicated, and contact precautions alone are insufficient. Prophylactic antibiotics for close contacts are also recommended
(CDC Meningococcal Disease Guidelines).
Q10: A nurse discovers a small fire in a wastebasket in a client's room. The client is in bed and able to walk.
Following the RACE protocol, what should the nurse do first?
CJMM Function: Prioritize Hypotheses
A. Activate the fire alarm using the nearest pull station
B. Confine the fire by closing the room door and turning off oxygen
C. Extinguish the fire using the nearest fire extinguisher
D. Rescue the client by moving them to a safe area [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The RACE protocol prioritizes life safety: Rescue, Activate alarm, Contain/confine, Extinguish/Evacuate. The nurse
must first rescue and move the client to safety before addressing the fire. While activating the alarm and confining the fire are
critical next steps, client safety is always the first priority (Joint Commission Environment of Care Standards).
Q11: A nurse is using a fire extinguisher to put out a small electrical fire in a medication room. The nurse
should follow the PASS acronym. What does the 'S' in PASS stand for?
CJMM Function: Recognize Cues
A. Squeeze the handle of the extinguisher
B. Sweep the nozzle from side to side at the base of the fire [CORRECT]
C. Stand at least 10 feet from the fire
, D. Shut off the electrical power supply first
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The PASS acronym stands for Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from side to side.
The 'S' refers to sweeping the extinguisher nozzle at the base of the fire to smother it effectively. While shutting off electrical power
is important for electrical fires, it is not part of the PASS acronym itself (OSHA Fire Safety Standards).
Q12: A nurse is performing triage at the scene of a mass casualty incident using the START (Simple Triage
and Rapid Treatment) system. A victim is found unconscious with no spontaneous breathing. After opening
the airway, the victim begins breathing at 8 breaths per minute. How should the nurse categorize this victim?
CJMM Function: Analyze Cues
A. Immediate (Red) [CORRECT]
B. Delayed (Yellow)
C. Minor (Green)
D. Expectant/Deceased (Black)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the START triage system, patients who are not breathing initially but begin breathing after airway opening are
classified as Immediate (Red), meaning they require urgent life-saving intervention. Their respiratory rate of 8 is below the
threshold of 30 but they required airway intervention, placing them in the immediate category. Delayed (Yellow) patients can wait
up to 1 hour; Minor (Green) can walk; Expectant/Black are unlikely to survive (START Triage Protocol).
Q13: A nurse is planning care for four clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assign
to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)?
CJMM Function: Generate Solutions
A. A client 2 days post-op cholecystectomy requiring wound care and medication administration [CORRECT]
B. A client newly admitted with chest pain who needs a comprehensive nursing assessment
C. A client receiving a blood transfusion for the first time who needs continuous monitoring
D. A client with acute respiratory failure whose condition is rapidly deteriorating
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An LPN can provide wound care and administer medications to a stable post-operative client under RN supervision. A
newly admitted client with chest pain requires a comprehensive RN assessment, a first-time blood transfusion requires RN
evaluation for adverse reactions, and a deteriorating client requires RN-level critical thinking. LPNs can manage stable, predictable
clients with established care plans (NCSBN Delegation Guidelines).
Q14: [SATA - Select All That Apply] According to CDC hand hygiene guidelines, which of the following
situations require the nurse to perform hand hygiene? (Select all that apply.)
CJMM Function: Recognize Cues
A. Before touching a client [CORRECT]
B. After removing gloves [CORRECT]
C. After using the restroom [CORRECT]
D. Before handling a clean dressing [CORRECT]
E. Between caring for two clients in the same room [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: The WHO '5 Moments for Hand Hygiene' include before touching a patient, before clean/aseptic procedures, after body
fluid exposure, after touching a patient, and after touching patient surroundings. All listed situations require hand hygiene: before
client contact (A), after glove removal (B), after restroom use (C), before handling clean supplies (D), and between clients (E).
Hand hygiene is the single most effective infection prevention measure (CDC/WHO Hand Hygiene Guidelines).
Q15: A nurse has applied wrist restraints to a client who is intubated and attempting to self-extubate. Which
of the following is required for restraint documentation?
CJMM Function: Evaluate Outcomes
A. The type of restraint and the exact time applied and removed each shift [CORRECT]
B. A signed consent form from the client's next of kin
