NEVADA CNA ELITE
UNIVERSAL TEST BANK
PART 0: THE (Table of Contents)
Section Cognitive Tier Focus Area Question Range
PART I N/A The Preview & Critical N/A
Axioms
PART II Tier 1 Foundational Syntax & Q1 – Q15
Application
PART II Tier 2 Complex Application & Q16 – Q35
Simulation
PART II Tier 3 Grandmaster Synthesis Q36 – Q60
PART I: THE Preview
This document forges elite clinical instincts, transitioning you from a baseline test-taker into a
highly competent, legally insulated Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA). By mastering these
precise Nevada-specific statutes and clinical parameters, your academic mastery will translate
directly into flawless patient care and board-level competence.
The "Critical Axioms" Cheat Sheet
● The Scope Hard-Deck: CNAs never cut tissue, never perform sterile/deep suctioning,
never change ostomy wafers, and never restart enteral feeding pumps.
● The Exclusivity of Medicated Ointments: You may apply non-medicated
over-the-counter (OTC) barrier creams (e.g., Vaseline, Desitin); you are strictly forbidden
from applying medicated ointments (e.g., hydrocortisone, antibiotics).
● The Exam Supremacy Rule: The Nevada skills evaluation requires an 80% task score;
missing a single bolded critical step (e.g., failing to lock bed brakes FIRST) triggers an
automatic failure.
● The Mandatory Reporting Law: Under NRS 200.5093, CNAs are mandatory reporters;
suspected elder abuse must be reported to authorities immediately, regardless of internal
facility hierarchies.
● The Renewal Imperative: Nevada requires 24 continuing education hours every two
years, which now strictly mandates 4 hours of Cultural Competency.
PART II: THE ELITE TEST BANK
Tier 1 - Foundational Syntax & Application
Q1: A CNA is providing perineal care to a resident with severe diaper dermatitis. The care plan
directs the application of an over-the-counter (OTC) ointment. Based on Nevada CNA scope of
practice (NAC 632.820), which action is the MOST APPROPRIATE? A) Apply an OTC
,hydrocortisone cream to reduce the inflammation. B) Apply an OTC antibiotic ointment to
prevent secondary bacterial infection. C) Apply Zinc Oxide to the affected area as a moisture
barrier. D) Refuse to apply any ointment, as all topical applications are the exclusive domain of
the licensed nurse.
● The Answer: C (Apply Zinc Oxide to the affected area as a moisture barrier.)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: Hydrocortisone is a medicated topical; CNAs cannot apply medicated
ointments.
○ B is incorrect: Antibiotic ointments are medicated and fall outside the CNA scope of
practice.
○ D is incorrect: Refusing is incorrect because Nevada explicitly allows CNAs to apply
non-medicated OTC ointments like Vaseline or Zinc Oxide.
The Mentor's Analysis: Scope boundaries dictate chemical interventions. When facing
compromised skin integrity, the immediate priority is moisture protection. By utilizing
non-medicated OTC barriers, you bypass the common trap of illegally dispensing medication.
Professional/Academic Intuition: CNAs protect the skin with non-medicated barriers;
they never treat the skin with medication.
Q2: A CNA is preparing to renew their active certification in Nevada for the year 2025. They
have completed 24 hours of continuing education (CE). To meet state mandates, what specific
CE category MUST be included in those 24 hours? A) 2 hours of Bioterrorism training B) 4
hours of Cultural Competency and Implicit Bias training C) 8 hours of Phlebotomy and IV
insertion observation D) 2 hours of Stigma and Discrimination training
● The Answer: B (4 hours of Cultural Competency and Implicit Bias training)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: Bioterrorism is a one-time requirement for RNs/LPNs, not a recurring
CNA mandate.
○ C is incorrect: Phlebotomy/IVs are strictly outside the CNA scope of practice.
○ D is incorrect: The HIV stigma training is required for licensees in
emergency/primary care, not universally for CNAs.
The Mentor's Analysis: Regulatory compliance is non-negotiable for active practice. When
facing certification renewal, the immediate priority is verifying mandatory sub-categories. By
utilizing the 4-hour Cultural Competency rule, you bypass the common trap of lapsed
credentials. Professional/Academic Intuition: 24 total hours are required; 4 of those hours
must definitively focus on Cultural Competency.
Q3: During the Nevada Headmaster Skills Exam, a candidate is demonstrating the "Ambulation
Using a Gait Belt" task. Which action represents a critical (bolded) step that, if missed, will result
in an IMMEDIATE task failure? A) Asking the client about their pain level three times. B) Locking
the bed brakes before bringing the client to a sitting position. C) Applying hand sanitizer for
exactly 15 seconds. D) Measuring the client's blood pressure prior to ambulation.
● The Answer: B (Locking the bed brakes before bringing the client to a sitting position.)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: While communication is vital, asking three times is not a mandated
bolded step for this specific task.
○ C is incorrect: Hand hygiene requires covering all surfaces and rubbing until
completely dry, standardly 20 seconds, not a hard stop at 15.
○ D is incorrect: Vitals are a separate skill module and not a prerequisite step for the
ambulation task.
The Mentor's Analysis: Safety protocols are the foundation of physical mobility. When facing
, patient transfers, the immediate priority is environmental stabilization. By utilizing locked bed
brakes, you bypass the common trap of catastrophic patient falls during the pivot.
Professional/Academic Intuition: A mobile environment during a transfer is an
unmitigated hazard; lock the brakes FIRST.
Q4: A Nevada CNA notices unexplained bruising on an 82-year-old resident's torso and
overhears a family member speaking aggressively to the resident. Based on NRS 200.5093,
what is the CNA's IMMEDIATE legal obligation? A) Monitor the family member secretly for the
next 48 hours to gather definitive evidence. B) Confront the family member directly to protect the
resident. C) Report the suspected elder abuse immediately as a mandatory reporter. D)
Document the bruises in the chart but wait for the RN to make any official abuse reports.
● The Answer: C (Report the suspected elder abuse immediately as a mandatory reporter.)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: CNAs are not investigators; delaying a report to gather evidence
violates the law.
○ B is incorrect: Confrontation escalates the danger to both the resident and the CNA.
○ D is incorrect: Mandatory reporting is an individual legal burden; you cannot defer
your legal duty to an RN.
The Mentor's Analysis: Vulnerable populations rely on clinical sentinels. When facing
suspected elder abuse, the immediate priority is activating state protection systems. By utilizing
mandatory reporting protocols, you bypass the common trap of deferring legal responsibility to
superiors. Professional/Academic Intuition: Suspicion dictates action; mandatory
reporters report immediately, they do not investigate.
Q5: A CNA is assisting a resident with an established abdominal stoma. The pouch is full, and
the adhesive wafer is beginning to peel off the skin. Based on Nevada CNA scope limitations,
which action is MOST ACCURATE? A) The CNA may empty the pouch and replace the entire
adhesive wafer. B) The CNA may empty the pouch and provide skin care but must notify the
nurse to replace the wafer. C) The CNA must completely avoid the stoma, as all ostomy care is
restricted to RNs. D) The CNA may replace the wafer only if the patient consents in writing.
● The Answer: B (The CNA may empty the pouch and provide skin care but must notify the
nurse to replace the wafer.)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: Changing, replacing, or cutting an ostomy barrier/wafer is strictly
prohibited for CNAs.
○ C is incorrect: CNAs are permitted to change the pouch and clean the stoma.
○ D is incorrect: Patient consent does not override state statutory scope limitations.
The Mentor's Analysis: Stoma management straddles the line between basic hygiene and
advanced wound care. When facing a failing ostomy appliance, the immediate priority is
emptying the effluent safely. By utilizing the nurse for wafer replacement, you bypass the
common trap of causing peristomal skin avulsion. Professional/Academic Intuition: CNAs
manage the pouch (the bag); licensed nurses manage the barrier (the wafer).
Q6: A patient on continuous enteral feedings via a G-tube needs to be repositioned and bathed.
The CNA must lower the head of the bed. What is the FIRST action the CNA must take
regarding the feeding pump? A) Disconnect the tubing entirely from the patient. B) Stop the
feeding pump, perform the care, and notify the licensed nurse to restart it. C) Leave the pump
running, as lowering the bed briefly will not increase aspiration risk. D) Stop the pump, perform
the care, and restart the pump at the previously set rate.
● The Answer: B (Stop the feeding pump, perform the care, and notify the licensed nurse
to restart it.)
UNIVERSAL TEST BANK
PART 0: THE (Table of Contents)
Section Cognitive Tier Focus Area Question Range
PART I N/A The Preview & Critical N/A
Axioms
PART II Tier 1 Foundational Syntax & Q1 – Q15
Application
PART II Tier 2 Complex Application & Q16 – Q35
Simulation
PART II Tier 3 Grandmaster Synthesis Q36 – Q60
PART I: THE Preview
This document forges elite clinical instincts, transitioning you from a baseline test-taker into a
highly competent, legally insulated Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA). By mastering these
precise Nevada-specific statutes and clinical parameters, your academic mastery will translate
directly into flawless patient care and board-level competence.
The "Critical Axioms" Cheat Sheet
● The Scope Hard-Deck: CNAs never cut tissue, never perform sterile/deep suctioning,
never change ostomy wafers, and never restart enteral feeding pumps.
● The Exclusivity of Medicated Ointments: You may apply non-medicated
over-the-counter (OTC) barrier creams (e.g., Vaseline, Desitin); you are strictly forbidden
from applying medicated ointments (e.g., hydrocortisone, antibiotics).
● The Exam Supremacy Rule: The Nevada skills evaluation requires an 80% task score;
missing a single bolded critical step (e.g., failing to lock bed brakes FIRST) triggers an
automatic failure.
● The Mandatory Reporting Law: Under NRS 200.5093, CNAs are mandatory reporters;
suspected elder abuse must be reported to authorities immediately, regardless of internal
facility hierarchies.
● The Renewal Imperative: Nevada requires 24 continuing education hours every two
years, which now strictly mandates 4 hours of Cultural Competency.
PART II: THE ELITE TEST BANK
Tier 1 - Foundational Syntax & Application
Q1: A CNA is providing perineal care to a resident with severe diaper dermatitis. The care plan
directs the application of an over-the-counter (OTC) ointment. Based on Nevada CNA scope of
practice (NAC 632.820), which action is the MOST APPROPRIATE? A) Apply an OTC
,hydrocortisone cream to reduce the inflammation. B) Apply an OTC antibiotic ointment to
prevent secondary bacterial infection. C) Apply Zinc Oxide to the affected area as a moisture
barrier. D) Refuse to apply any ointment, as all topical applications are the exclusive domain of
the licensed nurse.
● The Answer: C (Apply Zinc Oxide to the affected area as a moisture barrier.)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: Hydrocortisone is a medicated topical; CNAs cannot apply medicated
ointments.
○ B is incorrect: Antibiotic ointments are medicated and fall outside the CNA scope of
practice.
○ D is incorrect: Refusing is incorrect because Nevada explicitly allows CNAs to apply
non-medicated OTC ointments like Vaseline or Zinc Oxide.
The Mentor's Analysis: Scope boundaries dictate chemical interventions. When facing
compromised skin integrity, the immediate priority is moisture protection. By utilizing
non-medicated OTC barriers, you bypass the common trap of illegally dispensing medication.
Professional/Academic Intuition: CNAs protect the skin with non-medicated barriers;
they never treat the skin with medication.
Q2: A CNA is preparing to renew their active certification in Nevada for the year 2025. They
have completed 24 hours of continuing education (CE). To meet state mandates, what specific
CE category MUST be included in those 24 hours? A) 2 hours of Bioterrorism training B) 4
hours of Cultural Competency and Implicit Bias training C) 8 hours of Phlebotomy and IV
insertion observation D) 2 hours of Stigma and Discrimination training
● The Answer: B (4 hours of Cultural Competency and Implicit Bias training)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: Bioterrorism is a one-time requirement for RNs/LPNs, not a recurring
CNA mandate.
○ C is incorrect: Phlebotomy/IVs are strictly outside the CNA scope of practice.
○ D is incorrect: The HIV stigma training is required for licensees in
emergency/primary care, not universally for CNAs.
The Mentor's Analysis: Regulatory compliance is non-negotiable for active practice. When
facing certification renewal, the immediate priority is verifying mandatory sub-categories. By
utilizing the 4-hour Cultural Competency rule, you bypass the common trap of lapsed
credentials. Professional/Academic Intuition: 24 total hours are required; 4 of those hours
must definitively focus on Cultural Competency.
Q3: During the Nevada Headmaster Skills Exam, a candidate is demonstrating the "Ambulation
Using a Gait Belt" task. Which action represents a critical (bolded) step that, if missed, will result
in an IMMEDIATE task failure? A) Asking the client about their pain level three times. B) Locking
the bed brakes before bringing the client to a sitting position. C) Applying hand sanitizer for
exactly 15 seconds. D) Measuring the client's blood pressure prior to ambulation.
● The Answer: B (Locking the bed brakes before bringing the client to a sitting position.)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: While communication is vital, asking three times is not a mandated
bolded step for this specific task.
○ C is incorrect: Hand hygiene requires covering all surfaces and rubbing until
completely dry, standardly 20 seconds, not a hard stop at 15.
○ D is incorrect: Vitals are a separate skill module and not a prerequisite step for the
ambulation task.
The Mentor's Analysis: Safety protocols are the foundation of physical mobility. When facing
, patient transfers, the immediate priority is environmental stabilization. By utilizing locked bed
brakes, you bypass the common trap of catastrophic patient falls during the pivot.
Professional/Academic Intuition: A mobile environment during a transfer is an
unmitigated hazard; lock the brakes FIRST.
Q4: A Nevada CNA notices unexplained bruising on an 82-year-old resident's torso and
overhears a family member speaking aggressively to the resident. Based on NRS 200.5093,
what is the CNA's IMMEDIATE legal obligation? A) Monitor the family member secretly for the
next 48 hours to gather definitive evidence. B) Confront the family member directly to protect the
resident. C) Report the suspected elder abuse immediately as a mandatory reporter. D)
Document the bruises in the chart but wait for the RN to make any official abuse reports.
● The Answer: C (Report the suspected elder abuse immediately as a mandatory reporter.)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: CNAs are not investigators; delaying a report to gather evidence
violates the law.
○ B is incorrect: Confrontation escalates the danger to both the resident and the CNA.
○ D is incorrect: Mandatory reporting is an individual legal burden; you cannot defer
your legal duty to an RN.
The Mentor's Analysis: Vulnerable populations rely on clinical sentinels. When facing
suspected elder abuse, the immediate priority is activating state protection systems. By utilizing
mandatory reporting protocols, you bypass the common trap of deferring legal responsibility to
superiors. Professional/Academic Intuition: Suspicion dictates action; mandatory
reporters report immediately, they do not investigate.
Q5: A CNA is assisting a resident with an established abdominal stoma. The pouch is full, and
the adhesive wafer is beginning to peel off the skin. Based on Nevada CNA scope limitations,
which action is MOST ACCURATE? A) The CNA may empty the pouch and replace the entire
adhesive wafer. B) The CNA may empty the pouch and provide skin care but must notify the
nurse to replace the wafer. C) The CNA must completely avoid the stoma, as all ostomy care is
restricted to RNs. D) The CNA may replace the wafer only if the patient consents in writing.
● The Answer: B (The CNA may empty the pouch and provide skin care but must notify the
nurse to replace the wafer.)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: Changing, replacing, or cutting an ostomy barrier/wafer is strictly
prohibited for CNAs.
○ C is incorrect: CNAs are permitted to change the pouch and clean the stoma.
○ D is incorrect: Patient consent does not override state statutory scope limitations.
The Mentor's Analysis: Stoma management straddles the line between basic hygiene and
advanced wound care. When facing a failing ostomy appliance, the immediate priority is
emptying the effluent safely. By utilizing the nurse for wafer replacement, you bypass the
common trap of causing peristomal skin avulsion. Professional/Academic Intuition: CNAs
manage the pouch (the bag); licensed nurses manage the barrier (the wafer).
Q6: A patient on continuous enteral feedings via a G-tube needs to be repositioned and bathed.
The CNA must lower the head of the bed. What is the FIRST action the CNA must take
regarding the feeding pump? A) Disconnect the tubing entirely from the patient. B) Stop the
feeding pump, perform the care, and notify the licensed nurse to restart it. C) Leave the pump
running, as lowering the bed briefly will not increase aspiration risk. D) Stop the pump, perform
the care, and restart the pump at the previously set rate.
● The Answer: B (Stop the feeding pump, perform the care, and notify the licensed nurse
to restart it.)
