CERTIFIED DOCUMENTATION INTEGRITY PRACTITIONER
(CDIP®) 100 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALE LATEST 2026 ALREADY GRADED A+
1. A clinical documentation integrity (CDI) manager engages the CDI physician
champion to address an increase in claim denials. How does this strategy impact
the goal?
A) Clinicians will not require documentation integrity education.
B) Physicians can manage the documentation integrity process.
C) Physicians will learn documentation integrity practices from peers.
D) The CDI manager will exclusively provide education.
Answer: C
Rationale: Engaging a physician champion leverages peer-to-peer education, which
is often more effective in changing physician behavior than directives from non-
physician staff .
2. When a change in departmental workflow is necessary, what should be the first
step?
A) Define the gaps and solutions.
B) Set realistic timelines.
C) Re-engineer the process.
D) Assess the current workflow.
Answer: D
Rationale: Before implementing any changes, it is essential to understand the
existing workflow to identify inefficiencies and areas for improvement .
3. A compliant CDI program that adheres to payer regulations results in what
outcome?
A) Meeting external benchmarks.
B) Less risk from audits.
C) Need for more CDI staff.
D) Higher overall program cost.
Answer: B
Rationale: A compliant CDI program ensures that documentation and coding meet
payer requirements, reducing the likelihood of denials and audit risks .
,4. What is the foundational question a new or restructuring CDI program should
ask?
A) How can the bottom line be increased?
B) How many queries must be performed for financial success?
C) Why does clinical documentation need to be improved?
D) How fast can this be done?
Answer: C
Rationale: The foundational step in building a CDI program is understanding the
need for improvement to define its purpose, goals, and scope .
5. Which individual would be a key member to have on a CDI steering committee?
A) Nursing managers
B) Pharmacy manager
C) Physician champion
D) Director of respiratory therapy
Answer: C
Rationale: A physician champion is crucial for bridging the gap between the CDI
team and medical staff, driving physician engagement and buy-in .
6. A query should be generated when documentation contains which of the
following?
A) A postoperative hospital-acquired condition
B) A principal diagnosis without a major complication or comorbidity (MCC)
C) A diagnosis without clinical validation
D) A problem list with symptoms related to the chief complaint
Answer: C
Rationale: A query should be generated when documentation contains a diagnosis
without clinical validation, meaning there is no evidence in the health record to
support the diagnosis or that the diagnosis is inconsistent with other clinical
indicators .
7. What is the appropriate query approach when a physician documents a diagnosis
of acute kidney injury but the clinical indicators are not present?
A) Accept the diagnosis as documented
B) Query to confirm the diagnosis
C) Query for clinical validation
D) Ignore the diagnosis
Answer: C
, Rationale: The CDIP should send a query for clinical validation to confirm that the
clinical criteria for acute kidney injury are met, as the diagnosis may not be
supported by the clinical picture .
8. Which of the following is a valid reason to send a physician query?
A) To improve reimbursement
B) To clarify conflicting or ambiguous documentation
C) To increase the severity of illness
D) To add diagnoses not documented
Answer: B
Rationale: Queries are utilized to clarify conflicting, ambiguous, or incomplete
documentation in the health record. They are not intended solely to improve
reimbursement or add undocumented diagnoses .
9. The correct coding for heart failure with preserved ejection fraction is:
A) 150.32 Chronic diastolic (congestive) heart failure
B) I50.20 Unspecified systolic (congestive) heart failure
C) I50.30 Unspecified diastolic (congestive) heart failure
D) I50.31 Acute diastolic (congestive) heart failure
Answer: C
Rationale: Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction is synonymous with
diastolic heart failure. The correct ICD-10-CM code is I50.30, Unspecified
diastolic (congestive) heart failure .
10. What is the most appropriate query format when clinical indicators of a
condition are present, but the condition has not been documented?
A) Yes/No query
B) Multiple-choice query
C) Open-ended query
D) Verbal query
Answer: B
Rationale: A multiple-choice query is most appropriate when clinical indicators are
present but the diagnosis is not documented. A yes/no query in this scenario is
considered leading .
11. What is the definition of an Excludes 2 note in ICD-10-CM?
A) Neither of the codes can be assigned.
B) Two codes can be used together to completely describe the condition.
C) Only one code can be assigned to completely describe the condition.
D) This is not a convention found in ICD-10-CM.
(CDIP®) 100 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALE LATEST 2026 ALREADY GRADED A+
1. A clinical documentation integrity (CDI) manager engages the CDI physician
champion to address an increase in claim denials. How does this strategy impact
the goal?
A) Clinicians will not require documentation integrity education.
B) Physicians can manage the documentation integrity process.
C) Physicians will learn documentation integrity practices from peers.
D) The CDI manager will exclusively provide education.
Answer: C
Rationale: Engaging a physician champion leverages peer-to-peer education, which
is often more effective in changing physician behavior than directives from non-
physician staff .
2. When a change in departmental workflow is necessary, what should be the first
step?
A) Define the gaps and solutions.
B) Set realistic timelines.
C) Re-engineer the process.
D) Assess the current workflow.
Answer: D
Rationale: Before implementing any changes, it is essential to understand the
existing workflow to identify inefficiencies and areas for improvement .
3. A compliant CDI program that adheres to payer regulations results in what
outcome?
A) Meeting external benchmarks.
B) Less risk from audits.
C) Need for more CDI staff.
D) Higher overall program cost.
Answer: B
Rationale: A compliant CDI program ensures that documentation and coding meet
payer requirements, reducing the likelihood of denials and audit risks .
,4. What is the foundational question a new or restructuring CDI program should
ask?
A) How can the bottom line be increased?
B) How many queries must be performed for financial success?
C) Why does clinical documentation need to be improved?
D) How fast can this be done?
Answer: C
Rationale: The foundational step in building a CDI program is understanding the
need for improvement to define its purpose, goals, and scope .
5. Which individual would be a key member to have on a CDI steering committee?
A) Nursing managers
B) Pharmacy manager
C) Physician champion
D) Director of respiratory therapy
Answer: C
Rationale: A physician champion is crucial for bridging the gap between the CDI
team and medical staff, driving physician engagement and buy-in .
6. A query should be generated when documentation contains which of the
following?
A) A postoperative hospital-acquired condition
B) A principal diagnosis without a major complication or comorbidity (MCC)
C) A diagnosis without clinical validation
D) A problem list with symptoms related to the chief complaint
Answer: C
Rationale: A query should be generated when documentation contains a diagnosis
without clinical validation, meaning there is no evidence in the health record to
support the diagnosis or that the diagnosis is inconsistent with other clinical
indicators .
7. What is the appropriate query approach when a physician documents a diagnosis
of acute kidney injury but the clinical indicators are not present?
A) Accept the diagnosis as documented
B) Query to confirm the diagnosis
C) Query for clinical validation
D) Ignore the diagnosis
Answer: C
, Rationale: The CDIP should send a query for clinical validation to confirm that the
clinical criteria for acute kidney injury are met, as the diagnosis may not be
supported by the clinical picture .
8. Which of the following is a valid reason to send a physician query?
A) To improve reimbursement
B) To clarify conflicting or ambiguous documentation
C) To increase the severity of illness
D) To add diagnoses not documented
Answer: B
Rationale: Queries are utilized to clarify conflicting, ambiguous, or incomplete
documentation in the health record. They are not intended solely to improve
reimbursement or add undocumented diagnoses .
9. The correct coding for heart failure with preserved ejection fraction is:
A) 150.32 Chronic diastolic (congestive) heart failure
B) I50.20 Unspecified systolic (congestive) heart failure
C) I50.30 Unspecified diastolic (congestive) heart failure
D) I50.31 Acute diastolic (congestive) heart failure
Answer: C
Rationale: Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction is synonymous with
diastolic heart failure. The correct ICD-10-CM code is I50.30, Unspecified
diastolic (congestive) heart failure .
10. What is the most appropriate query format when clinical indicators of a
condition are present, but the condition has not been documented?
A) Yes/No query
B) Multiple-choice query
C) Open-ended query
D) Verbal query
Answer: B
Rationale: A multiple-choice query is most appropriate when clinical indicators are
present but the diagnosis is not documented. A yes/no query in this scenario is
considered leading .
11. What is the definition of an Excludes 2 note in ICD-10-CM?
A) Neither of the codes can be assigned.
B) Two codes can be used together to completely describe the condition.
C) Only one code can be assigned to completely describe the condition.
D) This is not a convention found in ICD-10-CM.
