NURS 6560 Final Exam (2 Versions,
200 Q and A, Latest-2025/ 2026) /
NURS 6560N Final Exam / NURS6560
Final Exam / NURS6560N Final Exam:
Walden University | and Correct Q
and A
EXAM
Cardiology & Vascular
1. A 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents
with acute onset of severe, tearing chest pain radiating to his
back. His blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg in the right arm
and 140/80 mmHg in the left arm. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Acute myocardial infarction
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Aortic dissection
D) Pericarditis
Answer: C) Aortic dissection
Rationale: The classic presentation of aortic dissection includes
sudden, severe tearing chest pain that radiates to the back, along
with blood pressure differential between arms. This is a medical
emergency requiring immediate imaging (CT angiography) and
surgical or medical management.
,2. A 72-year-old female with heart failure with reduced
ejection fraction (HFrEF) is being managed on carvedilol,
lisinopril, and furosemide. She reports worsening shortness of
breath and a 5-lb weight gain over 3 days. Which of the
following is the most appropriate next step?
A) Increase furosemide dose
B) Start digoxin
C) Refer for heart transplant evaluation
D) Add spironolactone
Answer: A) Increase furosemide dose
Rationale: Acute decompensated heart failure with fluid overload
is best managed initially by adjusting diuretic therapy. The weight
gain and worsening dyspnea indicate fluid retention; increasing
the loop diuretic is the first-line intervention.
3. A patient with atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin.
Which INR range is therapeutic for this indication?
A) 1.5–2.0
B) 2.0–3.0
C) 2.5–3.5
D) 3.0–4.0
Answer: B) 2.0–3.0
,Rationale: For atrial fibrillation, the target INR range is 2.0–3.0 to
balance stroke prevention with bleeding risk. Mechanical heart
valves require a higher target of 2.5–3.5.
4. A 55-year-old male with a history of hyperlipidemia
presents with substernal chest pressure with exertion that
resolves with rest. An ECG shows no acute changes. What is
the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
A) Cardiac catheterization
B) Exercise stress test
C) CT coronary angiography
D) Resting echocardiogram
Answer: B) Exercise stress test
Rationale: Stable angina is best evaluated with a stress test to
assess for inducible ischemia. Cardiac catheterization is reserved
for high-risk or unstable patients.
5. Which of the following findings on an ECG is most
concerning for hyperkalemia?
A) Peaked T waves
B) U waves
C) Prolonged PR interval
D) ST-segment depression
, Answer: A) Peaked T waves
Rationale: Peaked (tented) T waves are an early and classic ECG
finding in hyperkalemia. As potassium rises, PR prolongation, QRS
widening, and eventually sine wave pattern can occur.
6. A patient with a history of DVT is started on enoxaparin.
What laboratory value should be monitored?
A) aPTT
B) Anti-Xa level
C) PT/INR
D) Platelet count
Answer: D) Platelet count
Rationale: Enoxaparin (a low-molecular-weight heparin) can cause
heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), so platelet counts
should be monitored periodically. Anti-Xa levels may be checked
in certain populations but are not routine.
7. A 45-year-old female presents with palpitations, heat
intolerance, and weight loss despite increased appetite. Her
TSH is <0.01 mIU/L and free T4 is elevated. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A) Graves' disease
200 Q and A, Latest-2025/ 2026) /
NURS 6560N Final Exam / NURS6560
Final Exam / NURS6560N Final Exam:
Walden University | and Correct Q
and A
EXAM
Cardiology & Vascular
1. A 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents
with acute onset of severe, tearing chest pain radiating to his
back. His blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg in the right arm
and 140/80 mmHg in the left arm. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Acute myocardial infarction
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Aortic dissection
D) Pericarditis
Answer: C) Aortic dissection
Rationale: The classic presentation of aortic dissection includes
sudden, severe tearing chest pain that radiates to the back, along
with blood pressure differential between arms. This is a medical
emergency requiring immediate imaging (CT angiography) and
surgical or medical management.
,2. A 72-year-old female with heart failure with reduced
ejection fraction (HFrEF) is being managed on carvedilol,
lisinopril, and furosemide. She reports worsening shortness of
breath and a 5-lb weight gain over 3 days. Which of the
following is the most appropriate next step?
A) Increase furosemide dose
B) Start digoxin
C) Refer for heart transplant evaluation
D) Add spironolactone
Answer: A) Increase furosemide dose
Rationale: Acute decompensated heart failure with fluid overload
is best managed initially by adjusting diuretic therapy. The weight
gain and worsening dyspnea indicate fluid retention; increasing
the loop diuretic is the first-line intervention.
3. A patient with atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin.
Which INR range is therapeutic for this indication?
A) 1.5–2.0
B) 2.0–3.0
C) 2.5–3.5
D) 3.0–4.0
Answer: B) 2.0–3.0
,Rationale: For atrial fibrillation, the target INR range is 2.0–3.0 to
balance stroke prevention with bleeding risk. Mechanical heart
valves require a higher target of 2.5–3.5.
4. A 55-year-old male with a history of hyperlipidemia
presents with substernal chest pressure with exertion that
resolves with rest. An ECG shows no acute changes. What is
the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
A) Cardiac catheterization
B) Exercise stress test
C) CT coronary angiography
D) Resting echocardiogram
Answer: B) Exercise stress test
Rationale: Stable angina is best evaluated with a stress test to
assess for inducible ischemia. Cardiac catheterization is reserved
for high-risk or unstable patients.
5. Which of the following findings on an ECG is most
concerning for hyperkalemia?
A) Peaked T waves
B) U waves
C) Prolonged PR interval
D) ST-segment depression
, Answer: A) Peaked T waves
Rationale: Peaked (tented) T waves are an early and classic ECG
finding in hyperkalemia. As potassium rises, PR prolongation, QRS
widening, and eventually sine wave pattern can occur.
6. A patient with a history of DVT is started on enoxaparin.
What laboratory value should be monitored?
A) aPTT
B) Anti-Xa level
C) PT/INR
D) Platelet count
Answer: D) Platelet count
Rationale: Enoxaparin (a low-molecular-weight heparin) can cause
heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), so platelet counts
should be monitored periodically. Anti-Xa levels may be checked
in certain populations but are not routine.
7. A 45-year-old female presents with palpitations, heat
intolerance, and weight loss despite increased appetite. Her
TSH is <0.01 mIU/L and free T4 is elevated. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A) Graves' disease
