Fall Semester 2026–2027 SURG240 – Operating Room
Safety Updated 2026 | 190+ Questions and Answers |
SURG240 Operating Room Safety Comprehensive
Study Guide, Practice Exam, Exam Prep Test Bank,
Perioperative Nursing, Sterile Technique, Surgical
Asepsis, Infection Prevention & Control, Surgical
Instrumentation, Patient Positioning, Anesthesia
Safety, Fire Safety, Specimen Handling, Clinical
Judgment, Next Generation NCLEX (NGN), Detailed
Rationales and Complete Revision Material
Question 1: What is the primary purpose of the Universal Protocol in the
operating room?
A. To standardize surgical instrumentation
B. To prevent wrong-site, wrong-procedure, and wrong-person surgery
C. To reduce anesthesia-related complications
D. To ensure proper sterilization of surgical equipment
CORRECT ANSWER: B. To prevent wrong-site, wrong-procedure, and wrong-
person surgery
Rationale: The Universal Protocol, established by the Joint Commission, is specifically
designed to prevent wrong-site, wrong-procedure, and wrong-person surgeries through
a pre-operative verification process, site marking, and a time-out.
Question 2: During the surgical "time-out," which of the following actions is
MOST critical?
A. Reviewing the patient's dietary restrictions
B. Confirming the patient's identity, surgical site, and procedure
C. Checking the anesthesia machine's functionality
D. Documenting the surgical counts
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Confirming the patient's identity, surgical site, and
procedure
Rationale: The time-out is the final check before the incision. Its core function is the
active, team-based confirmation of the correct patient, correct site, and correct
procedure, involving all members of the surgical team.
Question 3: Which of the following is a Class I (lowest risk) surgical wound
classification?
A. Clean-contaminated
B. Contaminated
C. Clean
D. Dirty or infected
,CORRECT ANSWER: C. Clean
Rationale: A clean wound is an uninfected operative wound in which no inflammation is
encountered and the respiratory, alimentary, genital, or uninfected urinary tracts are not
entered. It carries the lowest risk of surgical site infection.
Question 4: The principle of aseptic technique is BEST described as:
A. The complete elimination of all microbial life from an object
B. The practices and procedures used to prevent contamination from pathogens
C. The use of chemical agents to destroy pathogens on living tissue
D. The process of cleaning surfaces with disinfectants
CORRECT ANSWER: B. The practices and procedures used to prevent
contamination from pathogens
Rationale: Aseptic technique refers to a set of specific practices and procedures
performed under carefully controlled conditions to minimize contamination by
pathogens and maintain a sterile field.
Question 5: What is the minimum recommended time for a surgical hand scrub
to be effective when using an alcohol-based hand rub?
A. 1-2 minutes
B. 3-5 minutes
C. 5-7 minutes
D. 10 minutes
CORRECT ANSWER: A. 1-2 minutes
Rationale: While a traditional water-based scrub can take 3-5 minutes, alcohol-based
hand rubs are highly effective and recommended for surgical hand antisepsis with a
minimum application time of 1-2 minutes, following the manufacturer's instructions.
Question 6: Which of the following is a PRIMARY consideration when selecting
surgical gloves?
A. The color of the gloves
B. The glove material's barrier integrity and resistance to tears
C. The brand name of the gloves
D. The cost of the gloves
CORRECT ANSWER: B. The glove material's barrier integrity and resistance to
tears
Rationale: The primary function of surgical gloves is to provide a barrier between the
surgical team and the patient. Therefore, the material's integrity, puncture resistance,
and durability are the most critical factors.
Question 7: An "adverse event" in the OR is BEST defined as:
,A. Any deviation from the standard surgical procedure
B. An injury or complication caused by medical management rather than the underlying
disease
C. A minor equipment malfunction
D. A delay in the surgical schedule
CORRECT ANSWER: B. An injury or complication caused by medical
management rather than the underlying disease
Rationale: An adverse event is an injury resulting from medical intervention, not from
the patient's disease process. This is a key concept in patient safety and risk
management.
Question 8: What is the primary purpose of the surgical count?
A. To ensure all surgical instruments are accounted for before and after surgery
B. To calculate the cost of supplies used
C. To track the time spent on each surgical phase
D. To record the number of staff in the OR
CORRECT ANSWER: A. To ensure all surgical instruments are accounted for
before and after surgery
Rationale: The primary purpose of a surgical count is to prevent retained foreign objects
(RFOs) by accounting for all sponges, needles, and instruments before wound closure
and at the end of the procedure.
Question 9: A "near miss" in the operating room is:
A. An event that caused patient harm but was quickly corrected
B. A medical error that did not reach the patient because it was intercepted
C. A complication that occurred during a surgical procedure
D. A legal claim that was settled out of court
CORRECT ANSWER: B. A medical error that did not reach the patient because
it was intercepted
Rationale: A near miss is an error or event that has the potential to cause patient harm
but is caught and corrected before the patient is affected. Reporting near misses is
crucial for system improvement.
Question 10: What is the role of the "circulating nurse" in the operating room?
A. To perform the surgical scrub and hand out instruments
B. To administer anesthesia to the patient
C. To document the surgical procedure
D. To manage the OR environment, documentation, and act as a patient advocate
CORRECT ANSWER: D. To manage the OR environment, documentation, and
act as a patient advocate
, Rationale: The circulating nurse is a registered nurse who works outside the sterile field,
managing the overall environment, providing supplies, documenting care, and
advocating for the patient's safety throughout the surgery.
Question 11: What does the acronym "SHEA" stand for in the context of OR
safety?
A. Surgical Hand and Equipment Association
B. Society for Healthcare Epidemiology of America
C. Standard Hospital Equipment Audit
D. Surgical Hygiene and Environmental Assessment
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Society for Healthcare Epidemiology of America
Rationale: SHEA is a professional organization that publishes guidelines and
recommendations, including those for preventing surgical site infections (SSIs), which
are critical to OR safety.
Question 12: Which of the following actions is a violation of sterile technique?
A. Draping the patient from the surgical site outward
B. Placing a sterile item within the sterile field if its wrapper is dry and intact
C. Reaching over a sterile field to adjust a light
D. Adding sterile solution to a basin on the sterile field
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Reaching over a sterile field to adjust a light
Rationale: Reaching over a sterile field is a violation of sterile technique, as it can
contaminate the field from non-sterile clothing or skin. Sterile personnel should avoid
reaching over the sterile field.
Question 13: The purpose of a "surgical safety checklist," such as the WHO's,
is to:
A. Ensure the OR is fully stocked
B. Improve communication and teamwork among the surgical team
C. Assign blame in case of an error
D. Document the surgery for billing purposes
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Improve communication and teamwork among the
surgical team
Rationale: The WHO Surgical Safety Checklist is designed to improve team
communication and consistency of care, thereby reducing complications and deaths
associated with surgery. It is a tool to enhance safety culture.
Question 14: What is the most common type of surgical fire?
A. An airway fire
B. A fire on the patient's skin
Safety Updated 2026 | 190+ Questions and Answers |
SURG240 Operating Room Safety Comprehensive
Study Guide, Practice Exam, Exam Prep Test Bank,
Perioperative Nursing, Sterile Technique, Surgical
Asepsis, Infection Prevention & Control, Surgical
Instrumentation, Patient Positioning, Anesthesia
Safety, Fire Safety, Specimen Handling, Clinical
Judgment, Next Generation NCLEX (NGN), Detailed
Rationales and Complete Revision Material
Question 1: What is the primary purpose of the Universal Protocol in the
operating room?
A. To standardize surgical instrumentation
B. To prevent wrong-site, wrong-procedure, and wrong-person surgery
C. To reduce anesthesia-related complications
D. To ensure proper sterilization of surgical equipment
CORRECT ANSWER: B. To prevent wrong-site, wrong-procedure, and wrong-
person surgery
Rationale: The Universal Protocol, established by the Joint Commission, is specifically
designed to prevent wrong-site, wrong-procedure, and wrong-person surgeries through
a pre-operative verification process, site marking, and a time-out.
Question 2: During the surgical "time-out," which of the following actions is
MOST critical?
A. Reviewing the patient's dietary restrictions
B. Confirming the patient's identity, surgical site, and procedure
C. Checking the anesthesia machine's functionality
D. Documenting the surgical counts
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Confirming the patient's identity, surgical site, and
procedure
Rationale: The time-out is the final check before the incision. Its core function is the
active, team-based confirmation of the correct patient, correct site, and correct
procedure, involving all members of the surgical team.
Question 3: Which of the following is a Class I (lowest risk) surgical wound
classification?
A. Clean-contaminated
B. Contaminated
C. Clean
D. Dirty or infected
,CORRECT ANSWER: C. Clean
Rationale: A clean wound is an uninfected operative wound in which no inflammation is
encountered and the respiratory, alimentary, genital, or uninfected urinary tracts are not
entered. It carries the lowest risk of surgical site infection.
Question 4: The principle of aseptic technique is BEST described as:
A. The complete elimination of all microbial life from an object
B. The practices and procedures used to prevent contamination from pathogens
C. The use of chemical agents to destroy pathogens on living tissue
D. The process of cleaning surfaces with disinfectants
CORRECT ANSWER: B. The practices and procedures used to prevent
contamination from pathogens
Rationale: Aseptic technique refers to a set of specific practices and procedures
performed under carefully controlled conditions to minimize contamination by
pathogens and maintain a sterile field.
Question 5: What is the minimum recommended time for a surgical hand scrub
to be effective when using an alcohol-based hand rub?
A. 1-2 minutes
B. 3-5 minutes
C. 5-7 minutes
D. 10 minutes
CORRECT ANSWER: A. 1-2 minutes
Rationale: While a traditional water-based scrub can take 3-5 minutes, alcohol-based
hand rubs are highly effective and recommended for surgical hand antisepsis with a
minimum application time of 1-2 minutes, following the manufacturer's instructions.
Question 6: Which of the following is a PRIMARY consideration when selecting
surgical gloves?
A. The color of the gloves
B. The glove material's barrier integrity and resistance to tears
C. The brand name of the gloves
D. The cost of the gloves
CORRECT ANSWER: B. The glove material's barrier integrity and resistance to
tears
Rationale: The primary function of surgical gloves is to provide a barrier between the
surgical team and the patient. Therefore, the material's integrity, puncture resistance,
and durability are the most critical factors.
Question 7: An "adverse event" in the OR is BEST defined as:
,A. Any deviation from the standard surgical procedure
B. An injury or complication caused by medical management rather than the underlying
disease
C. A minor equipment malfunction
D. A delay in the surgical schedule
CORRECT ANSWER: B. An injury or complication caused by medical
management rather than the underlying disease
Rationale: An adverse event is an injury resulting from medical intervention, not from
the patient's disease process. This is a key concept in patient safety and risk
management.
Question 8: What is the primary purpose of the surgical count?
A. To ensure all surgical instruments are accounted for before and after surgery
B. To calculate the cost of supplies used
C. To track the time spent on each surgical phase
D. To record the number of staff in the OR
CORRECT ANSWER: A. To ensure all surgical instruments are accounted for
before and after surgery
Rationale: The primary purpose of a surgical count is to prevent retained foreign objects
(RFOs) by accounting for all sponges, needles, and instruments before wound closure
and at the end of the procedure.
Question 9: A "near miss" in the operating room is:
A. An event that caused patient harm but was quickly corrected
B. A medical error that did not reach the patient because it was intercepted
C. A complication that occurred during a surgical procedure
D. A legal claim that was settled out of court
CORRECT ANSWER: B. A medical error that did not reach the patient because
it was intercepted
Rationale: A near miss is an error or event that has the potential to cause patient harm
but is caught and corrected before the patient is affected. Reporting near misses is
crucial for system improvement.
Question 10: What is the role of the "circulating nurse" in the operating room?
A. To perform the surgical scrub and hand out instruments
B. To administer anesthesia to the patient
C. To document the surgical procedure
D. To manage the OR environment, documentation, and act as a patient advocate
CORRECT ANSWER: D. To manage the OR environment, documentation, and
act as a patient advocate
, Rationale: The circulating nurse is a registered nurse who works outside the sterile field,
managing the overall environment, providing supplies, documenting care, and
advocating for the patient's safety throughout the surgery.
Question 11: What does the acronym "SHEA" stand for in the context of OR
safety?
A. Surgical Hand and Equipment Association
B. Society for Healthcare Epidemiology of America
C. Standard Hospital Equipment Audit
D. Surgical Hygiene and Environmental Assessment
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Society for Healthcare Epidemiology of America
Rationale: SHEA is a professional organization that publishes guidelines and
recommendations, including those for preventing surgical site infections (SSIs), which
are critical to OR safety.
Question 12: Which of the following actions is a violation of sterile technique?
A. Draping the patient from the surgical site outward
B. Placing a sterile item within the sterile field if its wrapper is dry and intact
C. Reaching over a sterile field to adjust a light
D. Adding sterile solution to a basin on the sterile field
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Reaching over a sterile field to adjust a light
Rationale: Reaching over a sterile field is a violation of sterile technique, as it can
contaminate the field from non-sterile clothing or skin. Sterile personnel should avoid
reaching over the sterile field.
Question 13: The purpose of a "surgical safety checklist," such as the WHO's,
is to:
A. Ensure the OR is fully stocked
B. Improve communication and teamwork among the surgical team
C. Assign blame in case of an error
D. Document the surgery for billing purposes
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Improve communication and teamwork among the
surgical team
Rationale: The WHO Surgical Safety Checklist is designed to improve team
communication and consistency of care, thereby reducing complications and deaths
associated with surgery. It is a tool to enhance safety culture.
Question 14: What is the most common type of surgical fire?
A. An airway fire
B. A fire on the patient's skin
