HESI EXIT EXAM PRACTICE TEST EXAM GAURANTEED PASS WITH 100+
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QUESTIONS 2026 CARRICULUM BASSED VERRIFIED TEST INSTANT PDF
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Question 1
The nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement by
the client indicates a need for further teaching regarding insulin therapy?
A. "I will rotate my injection sites within the same anatomical region."
B. "I can store my unopened vials of insulin in the refrigerator."
C. "I should draw up the regular insulin before the NPH insulin."
D. "I will massage the injection site after giving the insulin to help it absorb."
Answer: D
Rationale: Massaging the injection site can increase the rate of absorption and cause unpredictable
hypoglycemia. The client should be taught to not massage the site. Rotating sites, refrigerating
unopened vials, and drawing up clear (regular) before cloudy (NPH) insulin are all correct practices.
Question 2
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of rule-out myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test is
the most specific and sensitive indicator of an acute MI?
A. Creatine Kinase (CK-MB)
B. Troponin I
C. Myoglobin
D. Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST)
Answer: B
Rationale: Troponin I is a cardiac-specific protein that is released into the bloodstream when
myocardial necrosis occurs. It is the most specific and sensitive biomarker for an MI. CK-MB and
myoglobin are also elevated but are less specific than troponin. AST is a non-specific enzyme found in
many tissues.
,Question 3
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure. Which statement indicates the
client understands the dietary restrictions?
A. "I can use salt substitutes freely since they don't contain sodium."
B. "I should avoid canned soups and frozen dinners."
C. "I need to increase my fluid intake to at least 3 liters a day."
D. "I can eat as many processed meats as I want, as long as I don't add salt."
Answer: B
Rationale: Canned soups and frozen dinners are high in sodium. A low-sodium diet is crucial for heart
failure to prevent fluid overload. Salt substitutes often contain potassium and should be used
cautiously, especially if the client is on potassium-sparing diuretics or has renal impairment. Fluid is
often restricted, not increased. Processed meats are high in sodium.
Question 4
The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours post-operative from an abdominal hysterectomy. The
client's vital signs are: BP 90/60 mmHg, HR 120 bpm, RR 22/min. The client's surgical dressing is dry
and intact. The nurse assesses the client and notes a firm, distended bladder. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
B. Increase the IV fluid rate.
C. Prepare the client for a return to the operating room.
D. Catheterize the client to drain the bladder.
Answer: D
Rationale: The assessment findings (tachycardia, hypotension, firm distended bladder) are classic
signs of a distended bladder causing pressure on the abdominal incision and stimulating the vagus
nerve, leading to hypotension and bradycardia (though tachycardia is more common initially). The
priority is to relieve the bladder distention by catheterization. This will likely resolve the
cardiovascular symptoms. While the provider may need to be notified, it is not the immediate
priority; intervention is.
Question 5
,A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal
cannula. Which assessment finding indicates that the oxygen therapy is effective?
A. The client's respiratory rate has decreased from 28 to 18 breaths/min.
B. The client's skin is warm and dry.
C. The client's SpO2 is 96%.
D. The client is able to state his name and location.
Answer: C
Rationale: The primary goal of oxygen therapy is to maintain adequate oxygenation. An SpO2 of 96%
indicates that the oxygen therapy is effective. While a decreased respiratory rate (A) is a good sign, it
is not the most direct measure of oxygenation. Warm, dry skin (B) is a sign of adequate perfusion.
Orientation (D) is important, but oxygenation is best measured by pulse oximetry and arterial blood
gases.
Question 6
The nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which action is most important to
prevent a transfusion reaction?
A. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers and checking the blood product against the order.
B. Pre-medicate the client with diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol).
C. Infuse the blood product over 4 hours.
D. Maintain the client on strict bed rest during the transfusion.
Answer: A
Rationale: The most common cause of transfusion reactions is human error, specifically
misidentification of the client or the blood product. Therefore, the most important action to prevent a
reaction is to accurately verify the client's identity and ensure the blood product matches the order.
Pre-medication helps with allergic reactions but doesn't prevent the most severe, fatal errors. Infusing
over 4 hours is a standard time frame but not the most important preventative action.
Question 7
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will take this medication with my meals."
, B. "I need to have my blood levels checked regularly."
C. "I can stop taking this medication when I feel better."
D. "I should report any excessive gum growth to my doctor."
Answer: C
Rationale: Anticonvulsants like phenytoin must be taken consistently to maintain therapeutic levels.
Stopping the medication abruptly can lead to withdrawal seizures, status epilepticus, or rebound
seizures. The client must be taught not to stop the medication without a healthcare provider's
guidance. Taking with meals (A), checking blood levels (B), and reporting gingival hyperplasia (D) are
all correct client teaching points.
Question 8
The nurse is assessing a client who is 3 days post-operative following a total hip replacement. The
client reports sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain. The nurse notes that the client's left
calf is swollen and tender. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
B. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
C. Massage the client's left calf.
D. Apply a heating pad to the left calf.
Answer: A
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of a pulmonary embolism (PE) secondary to a deep vein
thrombosis (DVT) in the left calf. The priority is to support oxygenation. Administering oxygen is the
immediate, life-saving intervention. The nurse should then notify the healthcare provider. Massaging
the calf could dislodge a thrombus and worsen the PE, and applying heat is not a priority and could
increase swelling.
Question 9
A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. The nurse should teach the client to
avoid which food?
A. Apples
B. Broccoli
C. Grapes
TEST BANK
QUESTIONS 2026 CARRICULUM BASSED VERRIFIED TEST INSTANT PDF
DOWNLOAD
Question 1
The nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement by
the client indicates a need for further teaching regarding insulin therapy?
A. "I will rotate my injection sites within the same anatomical region."
B. "I can store my unopened vials of insulin in the refrigerator."
C. "I should draw up the regular insulin before the NPH insulin."
D. "I will massage the injection site after giving the insulin to help it absorb."
Answer: D
Rationale: Massaging the injection site can increase the rate of absorption and cause unpredictable
hypoglycemia. The client should be taught to not massage the site. Rotating sites, refrigerating
unopened vials, and drawing up clear (regular) before cloudy (NPH) insulin are all correct practices.
Question 2
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of rule-out myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test is
the most specific and sensitive indicator of an acute MI?
A. Creatine Kinase (CK-MB)
B. Troponin I
C. Myoglobin
D. Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST)
Answer: B
Rationale: Troponin I is a cardiac-specific protein that is released into the bloodstream when
myocardial necrosis occurs. It is the most specific and sensitive biomarker for an MI. CK-MB and
myoglobin are also elevated but are less specific than troponin. AST is a non-specific enzyme found in
many tissues.
,Question 3
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure. Which statement indicates the
client understands the dietary restrictions?
A. "I can use salt substitutes freely since they don't contain sodium."
B. "I should avoid canned soups and frozen dinners."
C. "I need to increase my fluid intake to at least 3 liters a day."
D. "I can eat as many processed meats as I want, as long as I don't add salt."
Answer: B
Rationale: Canned soups and frozen dinners are high in sodium. A low-sodium diet is crucial for heart
failure to prevent fluid overload. Salt substitutes often contain potassium and should be used
cautiously, especially if the client is on potassium-sparing diuretics or has renal impairment. Fluid is
often restricted, not increased. Processed meats are high in sodium.
Question 4
The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours post-operative from an abdominal hysterectomy. The
client's vital signs are: BP 90/60 mmHg, HR 120 bpm, RR 22/min. The client's surgical dressing is dry
and intact. The nurse assesses the client and notes a firm, distended bladder. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
B. Increase the IV fluid rate.
C. Prepare the client for a return to the operating room.
D. Catheterize the client to drain the bladder.
Answer: D
Rationale: The assessment findings (tachycardia, hypotension, firm distended bladder) are classic
signs of a distended bladder causing pressure on the abdominal incision and stimulating the vagus
nerve, leading to hypotension and bradycardia (though tachycardia is more common initially). The
priority is to relieve the bladder distention by catheterization. This will likely resolve the
cardiovascular symptoms. While the provider may need to be notified, it is not the immediate
priority; intervention is.
Question 5
,A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal
cannula. Which assessment finding indicates that the oxygen therapy is effective?
A. The client's respiratory rate has decreased from 28 to 18 breaths/min.
B. The client's skin is warm and dry.
C. The client's SpO2 is 96%.
D. The client is able to state his name and location.
Answer: C
Rationale: The primary goal of oxygen therapy is to maintain adequate oxygenation. An SpO2 of 96%
indicates that the oxygen therapy is effective. While a decreased respiratory rate (A) is a good sign, it
is not the most direct measure of oxygenation. Warm, dry skin (B) is a sign of adequate perfusion.
Orientation (D) is important, but oxygenation is best measured by pulse oximetry and arterial blood
gases.
Question 6
The nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which action is most important to
prevent a transfusion reaction?
A. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers and checking the blood product against the order.
B. Pre-medicate the client with diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol).
C. Infuse the blood product over 4 hours.
D. Maintain the client on strict bed rest during the transfusion.
Answer: A
Rationale: The most common cause of transfusion reactions is human error, specifically
misidentification of the client or the blood product. Therefore, the most important action to prevent a
reaction is to accurately verify the client's identity and ensure the blood product matches the order.
Pre-medication helps with allergic reactions but doesn't prevent the most severe, fatal errors. Infusing
over 4 hours is a standard time frame but not the most important preventative action.
Question 7
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will take this medication with my meals."
, B. "I need to have my blood levels checked regularly."
C. "I can stop taking this medication when I feel better."
D. "I should report any excessive gum growth to my doctor."
Answer: C
Rationale: Anticonvulsants like phenytoin must be taken consistently to maintain therapeutic levels.
Stopping the medication abruptly can lead to withdrawal seizures, status epilepticus, or rebound
seizures. The client must be taught not to stop the medication without a healthcare provider's
guidance. Taking with meals (A), checking blood levels (B), and reporting gingival hyperplasia (D) are
all correct client teaching points.
Question 8
The nurse is assessing a client who is 3 days post-operative following a total hip replacement. The
client reports sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain. The nurse notes that the client's left
calf is swollen and tender. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
B. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
C. Massage the client's left calf.
D. Apply a heating pad to the left calf.
Answer: A
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of a pulmonary embolism (PE) secondary to a deep vein
thrombosis (DVT) in the left calf. The priority is to support oxygenation. Administering oxygen is the
immediate, life-saving intervention. The nurse should then notify the healthcare provider. Massaging
the calf could dislodge a thrombus and worsen the PE, and applying heat is not a priority and could
increase swelling.
Question 9
A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. The nurse should teach the client to
avoid which food?
A. Apples
B. Broccoli
C. Grapes
