NUR 2392 Multidimensional Care II (MDC II) Final Exam
Prep Document | 2026/2027 Edition | 250 Verified Questions
NUR 2392 Multidimensional Care II Final Exam 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED
A+. 100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document contains 250 verified questions and answers for the
NUR 2392 Multidimensional Care II (MDC II) final exam. Each question is accompanied by a detailed
rationale explaining the correct answer and common distractors, ensuring a deep understanding of
complex nursing concepts. The content is aligned with the latest NCLEX-RN test plan and
evidence-based practice guidelines for the 2026/2027 academic year. Ideal for nursing students seeking
to consolidate their knowledge in adult health, perioperative care, and complex patient management.
Key Features:
250 verified multiple-choice questions with correct answers and rationales
Comprehensive coverage of adult health and complex care nursing
Detailed distractor analysis for each question
Updated to reflect 2026/2027 NCLEX-RN test plan
Organized by content area for focused study
Includes high-yield topics such as fluid/electrolytes, perioperative care, and oncology
Updates for 2026:
- Revised rationales to incorporate latest evidence-based practice guidelines
- Added new questions on emerging topics in multidimensional care
- Updated distractors to reflect common student misconceptions
- Reorganized content areas to align with current curriculum standards
- Enhanced answer format with step-by-step clinical reasoning
Abstract:
This document serves as a definitive study resource for the NUR 2392 Multidimensional Care II (MDC II) final
examination, featuring 250 meticulously verified questions that encompass the breadth of adult health nursing.
Each question is crafted to test critical thinking and clinical judgment, with rationales that elucidate the
underlying pathophysiology, nursing interventions, and pharmacological considerations. The content is
systematically organized into key areas including fluid and electrolyte balance, perioperative care, oncology,
respiratory and cardiovascular disorders, and neurological emergencies. By integrating the latest NCLEX-RN test
plan updates and evidence-based practice, this resource ensures that students are well-prepared to achieve a grade
of A+ on their final exam. The rationales not only justify the correct answer but also explain why alternative
options are incorrect, thereby reinforcing learning and promoting retention. This document is an indispensable
tool for nursing students aiming to excel in their MDC II course and beyond.
Keywords:
NUR 2392, Multidimensional Care II, MDC II, Final Exam, Nursing Questions, Rationales, NCLEX-RN, Adult
Health
Answer Format:
Each question is presented in a multiple-choice format with four options. The correct answer is indicated, followed
by a detailed rationale that explains the clinical reasoning, pathophysiology, and evidence-based justification.
Distractor explanations are provided to clarify why each incorrect option is not the best choice, enhancing critical
thinking.
Compliance Checklist:
Page 1
, Questions aligned with 2026/2027 NCLEX-RN test plan
Rationales cite current evidence-based practice guidelines
Content reviewed by subject matter experts
Distractors reflect common student errors
Updated to include latest pharmacological and treatment protocols
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Fluid, Electrolyte, and 1-40 Fluid volume deficits/excess, electrolyte 16%
Acid-Base Balance imbalances, ABG interpretation, IV therapy
Perioperative Care 41-80 Preoperative assessment, intraoperative 16%
nursing, postoperative complications, pain
management
Oncology Nursing 81-120 Cancer pathophysiology, chemotherapy, 16%
radiation therapy, palliative care, oncologic
emergencies
Respiratory Disorders 121-160 COPD, asthma, pneumonia, ARDS, 16%
mechanical ventilation, oxygen therapy
Cardiovascular Disorders 161-200 Heart failure, MI, arrhythmias, hypertension, 16%
cardiac surgery, hemodynamic monitoring
Neurological and Complex Care 201-250 Stroke, seizures, increased ICP, spinal cord 20%
injury, shock, sepsis, DIC
Page 2
,Q1. A patient with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) is receiving intravenous furosemide
40 mg every 12 hours. The nurse notes the patient's urine output over the last 24 hours is 600 mL,
serum potassium is 3.2 mEq/L, and the patient reports muscle cramps. The blood pressure is 100/60
mmHg, heart rate 90 bpm, and respirations 18/min. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
A. Administer a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 500 mL IV over 1 hour.
B. Hold the next dose of furosemide and notify the prescriber.
C. Give potassium chloride 20 mEq orally and continue furosemide.
D. Increase the furosemide dose to 80 mg every 12 hours.
Correct Answer: B. Hold the next dose of furosemide and notify the prescriber.
Rationale: The patient shows signs of hypokalemia (K+ 3.2, muscle cramps) and hypovolemia (low urine
output, hypotension). Continuing furosemide would worsen these imbalances. Holding the next dose and
notifying the prescriber allows for assessment and adjustment of therapy. Giving potassium without
holding the diuretic is insufficient as ongoing loss will continue. Saline bolus may be needed but only
after reassessment. Increasing the dose is contraindicated.
Why Wrong:
A - Saline bolus may be indicated for hypovolemia, but the priority is to stop the ongoing potassium
and fluid loss by holding the diuretic.
C - Potassium replacement alone does not address the hypovolemia and ongoing loss; the diuretic
must be held first.
D - Increasing the furosemide dose would exacerbate hypokalemia and hypovolemia, risking cardiac
arrhythmias and renal failure.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 41; Yancy, C.W., et al.
(2017). ACC/AHA/HFSA Heart Failure Guidelines.
Q2. A patient with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease (stage 3) is
scheduled for an elective coronary angiography. The prescriber orders: "Hold metformin 48 hours
before procedure; resume 48 hours after if renal function stable." The patient asks why metformin
must be held. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. Metformin increases the risk of bleeding during the procedure.
B. The contrast dye can cause acute kidney injury, and metformin may increase the risk of lactic
acidosis.
C. Metformin interferes with the effectiveness of the contrast dye.
D. Holding metformin helps prevent hypoglycemia during fasting.
Correct Answer: B. The contrast dye can cause acute kidney injury, and metformin may increase
the risk of lactic acidosis.
Rationale: The primary concern is contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN). Metformin is renally excreted; if
renal function declines after contrast, metformin accumulation increases the risk of lactic acidosis, a rare
but serious adverse effect. Therefore, guidelines recommend holding metformin before and after
procedures involving iodinated contrast. Bleeding risk is not associated with metformin. Interference with
dye is not a concern. Hypoglycemia prevention is managed differently.
Why Wrong:
A - Metformin does not affect coagulation or increase bleeding risk.
C - Metformin does not interact with contrast dye.
D - While fasting may cause hypoglycemia, the primary reason for holding metformin is the risk of
lactic acidosis with renal impairment.
Page 3
, Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 55; American Diabetes
Association. (2024). Standards of Medical Care in Diabetes.
Page 4
Prep Document | 2026/2027 Edition | 250 Verified Questions
NUR 2392 Multidimensional Care II Final Exam 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED
A+. 100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document contains 250 verified questions and answers for the
NUR 2392 Multidimensional Care II (MDC II) final exam. Each question is accompanied by a detailed
rationale explaining the correct answer and common distractors, ensuring a deep understanding of
complex nursing concepts. The content is aligned with the latest NCLEX-RN test plan and
evidence-based practice guidelines for the 2026/2027 academic year. Ideal for nursing students seeking
to consolidate their knowledge in adult health, perioperative care, and complex patient management.
Key Features:
250 verified multiple-choice questions with correct answers and rationales
Comprehensive coverage of adult health and complex care nursing
Detailed distractor analysis for each question
Updated to reflect 2026/2027 NCLEX-RN test plan
Organized by content area for focused study
Includes high-yield topics such as fluid/electrolytes, perioperative care, and oncology
Updates for 2026:
- Revised rationales to incorporate latest evidence-based practice guidelines
- Added new questions on emerging topics in multidimensional care
- Updated distractors to reflect common student misconceptions
- Reorganized content areas to align with current curriculum standards
- Enhanced answer format with step-by-step clinical reasoning
Abstract:
This document serves as a definitive study resource for the NUR 2392 Multidimensional Care II (MDC II) final
examination, featuring 250 meticulously verified questions that encompass the breadth of adult health nursing.
Each question is crafted to test critical thinking and clinical judgment, with rationales that elucidate the
underlying pathophysiology, nursing interventions, and pharmacological considerations. The content is
systematically organized into key areas including fluid and electrolyte balance, perioperative care, oncology,
respiratory and cardiovascular disorders, and neurological emergencies. By integrating the latest NCLEX-RN test
plan updates and evidence-based practice, this resource ensures that students are well-prepared to achieve a grade
of A+ on their final exam. The rationales not only justify the correct answer but also explain why alternative
options are incorrect, thereby reinforcing learning and promoting retention. This document is an indispensable
tool for nursing students aiming to excel in their MDC II course and beyond.
Keywords:
NUR 2392, Multidimensional Care II, MDC II, Final Exam, Nursing Questions, Rationales, NCLEX-RN, Adult
Health
Answer Format:
Each question is presented in a multiple-choice format with four options. The correct answer is indicated, followed
by a detailed rationale that explains the clinical reasoning, pathophysiology, and evidence-based justification.
Distractor explanations are provided to clarify why each incorrect option is not the best choice, enhancing critical
thinking.
Compliance Checklist:
Page 1
, Questions aligned with 2026/2027 NCLEX-RN test plan
Rationales cite current evidence-based practice guidelines
Content reviewed by subject matter experts
Distractors reflect common student errors
Updated to include latest pharmacological and treatment protocols
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Fluid, Electrolyte, and 1-40 Fluid volume deficits/excess, electrolyte 16%
Acid-Base Balance imbalances, ABG interpretation, IV therapy
Perioperative Care 41-80 Preoperative assessment, intraoperative 16%
nursing, postoperative complications, pain
management
Oncology Nursing 81-120 Cancer pathophysiology, chemotherapy, 16%
radiation therapy, palliative care, oncologic
emergencies
Respiratory Disorders 121-160 COPD, asthma, pneumonia, ARDS, 16%
mechanical ventilation, oxygen therapy
Cardiovascular Disorders 161-200 Heart failure, MI, arrhythmias, hypertension, 16%
cardiac surgery, hemodynamic monitoring
Neurological and Complex Care 201-250 Stroke, seizures, increased ICP, spinal cord 20%
injury, shock, sepsis, DIC
Page 2
,Q1. A patient with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) is receiving intravenous furosemide
40 mg every 12 hours. The nurse notes the patient's urine output over the last 24 hours is 600 mL,
serum potassium is 3.2 mEq/L, and the patient reports muscle cramps. The blood pressure is 100/60
mmHg, heart rate 90 bpm, and respirations 18/min. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
A. Administer a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 500 mL IV over 1 hour.
B. Hold the next dose of furosemide and notify the prescriber.
C. Give potassium chloride 20 mEq orally and continue furosemide.
D. Increase the furosemide dose to 80 mg every 12 hours.
Correct Answer: B. Hold the next dose of furosemide and notify the prescriber.
Rationale: The patient shows signs of hypokalemia (K+ 3.2, muscle cramps) and hypovolemia (low urine
output, hypotension). Continuing furosemide would worsen these imbalances. Holding the next dose and
notifying the prescriber allows for assessment and adjustment of therapy. Giving potassium without
holding the diuretic is insufficient as ongoing loss will continue. Saline bolus may be needed but only
after reassessment. Increasing the dose is contraindicated.
Why Wrong:
A - Saline bolus may be indicated for hypovolemia, but the priority is to stop the ongoing potassium
and fluid loss by holding the diuretic.
C - Potassium replacement alone does not address the hypovolemia and ongoing loss; the diuretic
must be held first.
D - Increasing the furosemide dose would exacerbate hypokalemia and hypovolemia, risking cardiac
arrhythmias and renal failure.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 41; Yancy, C.W., et al.
(2017). ACC/AHA/HFSA Heart Failure Guidelines.
Q2. A patient with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease (stage 3) is
scheduled for an elective coronary angiography. The prescriber orders: "Hold metformin 48 hours
before procedure; resume 48 hours after if renal function stable." The patient asks why metformin
must be held. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. Metformin increases the risk of bleeding during the procedure.
B. The contrast dye can cause acute kidney injury, and metformin may increase the risk of lactic
acidosis.
C. Metformin interferes with the effectiveness of the contrast dye.
D. Holding metformin helps prevent hypoglycemia during fasting.
Correct Answer: B. The contrast dye can cause acute kidney injury, and metformin may increase
the risk of lactic acidosis.
Rationale: The primary concern is contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN). Metformin is renally excreted; if
renal function declines after contrast, metformin accumulation increases the risk of lactic acidosis, a rare
but serious adverse effect. Therefore, guidelines recommend holding metformin before and after
procedures involving iodinated contrast. Bleeding risk is not associated with metformin. Interference with
dye is not a concern. Hypoglycemia prevention is managed differently.
Why Wrong:
A - Metformin does not affect coagulation or increase bleeding risk.
C - Metformin does not interact with contrast dye.
D - While fasting may cause hypoglycemia, the primary reason for holding metformin is the risk of
lactic acidosis with renal impairment.
Page 3
, Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 55; American Diabetes
Association. (2024). Standards of Medical Care in Diabetes.
Page 4
