NUR 634 MIDTERM EXAMINATION 2026/2027 UPDATE | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (LATEST VERSION): GRAND CANYON
UNIVERSITY 2026/2027
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NUR 634 MIDTERM EXAMINATION 2026/2027 UPDATE |
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (LATEST VERSION):
GRAND CANYON UNIVERSITY 2026/2027
75 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Advanced Health Assessment Health History & Interviewing
Diagnostic Reasoning & Clinical Judgment Cultural & Psychosocial Assessment
Physical Examination Techniques Evidence-Based Care
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Advanced Health Assessment Techniques | Q1-Q15
NUR 634 MIDTERM EXAMINATION 2026/2027 UPDATE | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (LATEST VERSION): GRAND CANYON UNIVERSITY
2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 52-year-old male presents for a routine annual physical. During the abdominal exam, the
FNP must perform techniques in the correct sequence to avoid altering findings. Which
sequence preserves the integrity of subsequent assessment findings?
A. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
B. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
C. Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
D. Percussion, palpation, auscultation, inspection
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
For the abdominal exam, auscultation must precede percussion and palpation because manipulating the
abdomen can alter bowel sounds and produce false findings. Inspection always comes first across all
systems, while palpation and percussion are reserved for last in the abdominal sequence to avoid distorting
auscultatory data. Choice B reverses auscultation to the end, which can yield artificially hyperactive or
suppressed bowel sounds.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A 34-year-old female complains of intermittent headaches and visual disturbances. When
assessing the cranial nerves responsible for extraocular movement, which combination
should the FNP evaluate together?
A. CN II and CN III only
B. CN III, CN IV, and CN VI
C. CN III and CN V only
D. CN IV, CN VI, and CN VII
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Cranial nerves III (occulomotor), IV (trochlear), and VI (abducens) collectively control extraocular movement
and are tested together using the H-test. CN II (optic) governs visual acuity and fields, not eye movement,
while CN V provides facial sensation and CN VII controls facial expression. Choice A omits the trochlear and
abducens nerves, both of which are required for full extraocular assessment.
NUR 634 MIDTERM EXAMINATION 2026/2027 UPDATE | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (LATEST VERSION): GRAND CANYON UNIVERSITY 2026/2027 -
2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80%
Page 2 of 40 2026/2027 | NUR 634
, Q3 Question 3 of 75
A 67-year-old male presents with fatigue and weight loss. On cervical lymph node palpation,
the FNP identifies a hard, fixed, 2 cm node in the left supraclavicular area. Which finding
most strongly suggests malignancy and warrants urgent referral?
A. Soft, mobile, tender node less than 1 cm
B. Mobile, rubbery node in the posterior cervical chain
C. Hard, fixed, matted node in the supraclavicular fossa
D. Bilateral soft cervical nodes that decrease with hydration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
A hard, fixed, matted supraclavicular node, especially on the left (Virchow node), is a classic red flag for
abdominal or thoracic malignancy and mandates urgent biopsy. Soft, mobile, tender nodes typically indicate
inflammatory or infectious processes. Choice B describes a benign reactive pattern, and choice D reflects
physiologic or dehydration-related changes that do not require urgent workup.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
A 45-year-old female presents with a changing mole on her left shoulder. The FNP uses the
ABCDE criteria to evaluate the lesion for melanoma. Which finding represents the most
concerning characteristic suggestive of melanoma?
A. Symmetric shape with regular borders
B. Uniform light brown color throughout
C. Diameter of 4 mm with stable size
D. Evolution in size, shape, and color over six weeks
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
The E in ABCDE stands for evolution, which is one of the most sensitive indicators of melanoma, capturing
lesions that change in size, shape, color, or symptoms over time. Choice A (symmetry with regular borders)
and choice B (uniform color) are reassuring features. Choice C describes a small stable lesion well below
the 6 mm concern threshold, while choice D documents the rapid change that defines melanoma risk.
NUR 634 MIDTERM EXAMINATION 2026/2027 UPDATE | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (LATEST VERSION): GRAND CANYON UNIVERSITY 2026/2027 -
2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80%
Page 3 of 40 2026/2027 | NUR 634
, Q5 Question 5 of 75
A 71-year-old female presents with chronic knee pain and morning stiffness lasting 30
minutes. The FNP performs a GALS screen to identify musculoskeletal abnormalities. What
is the primary purpose of the GALS screen?
A. Rapidly detect locomotor abnormalities requiring further evaluation
B. Definitively diagnose rheumatoid arthritis
C. Quantify the degree of joint deformity
D. Replace the need for imaging studies
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The GALS (Gait, Arms, Legs, Spine) screen is a brief screening tool designed to detect musculoskeletal
abnormalities that warrant further detailed examination, not to definitively diagnose a specific condition. It is
a triage tool that triggers deeper assessment rather than replacing imaging or specialist evaluation. Choice
B overstates the GALS purpose, while choices C and D misrepresent its scope, as it neither quantifies
deformity nor replaces imaging.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
A 6-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for a well-child visit. The FNP evaluates primitive
reflexes to assess neurologic development. Which finding would be abnormal and warrant
further investigation at this age?
A. Presence of a strong palmar grasp reflex
B. Persistence of the Moro reflex beyond six months
C. Absence of the Babinski sign
D. Symmetric tonic neck reflex present at birth
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The Moro reflex normally disappears by four to six months of age; persistence beyond six months suggests
central nervous system dysfunction and warrants neurologic evaluation. The palmar grasp typically resolves
by three to four months, so its persistence at six months is also notable, but the question asks which is most
clearly abnormal at this age. The Babinski sign is physiologic in infants up to about age two, and the
symmetric tonic neck reflex is a normal finding in early infancy.
NUR 634 MIDTERM EXAMINATION 2026/2027 UPDATE | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (LATEST VERSION): GRAND CANYON UNIVERSITY 2026/2027 -
2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80%
Page 4 of 40 2026/2027 | NUR 634
UNIVERSITY 2026/2027
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NUR 634 MIDTERM EXAMINATION 2026/2027 UPDATE |
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (LATEST VERSION):
GRAND CANYON UNIVERSITY 2026/2027
75 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Advanced Health Assessment Health History & Interviewing
Diagnostic Reasoning & Clinical Judgment Cultural & Psychosocial Assessment
Physical Examination Techniques Evidence-Based Care
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Advanced Health Assessment Techniques | Q1-Q15
NUR 634 MIDTERM EXAMINATION 2026/2027 UPDATE | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (LATEST VERSION): GRAND CANYON UNIVERSITY
2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 52-year-old male presents for a routine annual physical. During the abdominal exam, the
FNP must perform techniques in the correct sequence to avoid altering findings. Which
sequence preserves the integrity of subsequent assessment findings?
A. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
B. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
C. Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
D. Percussion, palpation, auscultation, inspection
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
For the abdominal exam, auscultation must precede percussion and palpation because manipulating the
abdomen can alter bowel sounds and produce false findings. Inspection always comes first across all
systems, while palpation and percussion are reserved for last in the abdominal sequence to avoid distorting
auscultatory data. Choice B reverses auscultation to the end, which can yield artificially hyperactive or
suppressed bowel sounds.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A 34-year-old female complains of intermittent headaches and visual disturbances. When
assessing the cranial nerves responsible for extraocular movement, which combination
should the FNP evaluate together?
A. CN II and CN III only
B. CN III, CN IV, and CN VI
C. CN III and CN V only
D. CN IV, CN VI, and CN VII
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Cranial nerves III (occulomotor), IV (trochlear), and VI (abducens) collectively control extraocular movement
and are tested together using the H-test. CN II (optic) governs visual acuity and fields, not eye movement,
while CN V provides facial sensation and CN VII controls facial expression. Choice A omits the trochlear and
abducens nerves, both of which are required for full extraocular assessment.
NUR 634 MIDTERM EXAMINATION 2026/2027 UPDATE | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (LATEST VERSION): GRAND CANYON UNIVERSITY 2026/2027 -
2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80%
Page 2 of 40 2026/2027 | NUR 634
, Q3 Question 3 of 75
A 67-year-old male presents with fatigue and weight loss. On cervical lymph node palpation,
the FNP identifies a hard, fixed, 2 cm node in the left supraclavicular area. Which finding
most strongly suggests malignancy and warrants urgent referral?
A. Soft, mobile, tender node less than 1 cm
B. Mobile, rubbery node in the posterior cervical chain
C. Hard, fixed, matted node in the supraclavicular fossa
D. Bilateral soft cervical nodes that decrease with hydration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
A hard, fixed, matted supraclavicular node, especially on the left (Virchow node), is a classic red flag for
abdominal or thoracic malignancy and mandates urgent biopsy. Soft, mobile, tender nodes typically indicate
inflammatory or infectious processes. Choice B describes a benign reactive pattern, and choice D reflects
physiologic or dehydration-related changes that do not require urgent workup.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
A 45-year-old female presents with a changing mole on her left shoulder. The FNP uses the
ABCDE criteria to evaluate the lesion for melanoma. Which finding represents the most
concerning characteristic suggestive of melanoma?
A. Symmetric shape with regular borders
B. Uniform light brown color throughout
C. Diameter of 4 mm with stable size
D. Evolution in size, shape, and color over six weeks
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
The E in ABCDE stands for evolution, which is one of the most sensitive indicators of melanoma, capturing
lesions that change in size, shape, color, or symptoms over time. Choice A (symmetry with regular borders)
and choice B (uniform color) are reassuring features. Choice C describes a small stable lesion well below
the 6 mm concern threshold, while choice D documents the rapid change that defines melanoma risk.
NUR 634 MIDTERM EXAMINATION 2026/2027 UPDATE | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (LATEST VERSION): GRAND CANYON UNIVERSITY 2026/2027 -
2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80%
Page 3 of 40 2026/2027 | NUR 634
, Q5 Question 5 of 75
A 71-year-old female presents with chronic knee pain and morning stiffness lasting 30
minutes. The FNP performs a GALS screen to identify musculoskeletal abnormalities. What
is the primary purpose of the GALS screen?
A. Rapidly detect locomotor abnormalities requiring further evaluation
B. Definitively diagnose rheumatoid arthritis
C. Quantify the degree of joint deformity
D. Replace the need for imaging studies
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The GALS (Gait, Arms, Legs, Spine) screen is a brief screening tool designed to detect musculoskeletal
abnormalities that warrant further detailed examination, not to definitively diagnose a specific condition. It is
a triage tool that triggers deeper assessment rather than replacing imaging or specialist evaluation. Choice
B overstates the GALS purpose, while choices C and D misrepresent its scope, as it neither quantifies
deformity nor replaces imaging.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
A 6-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for a well-child visit. The FNP evaluates primitive
reflexes to assess neurologic development. Which finding would be abnormal and warrant
further investigation at this age?
A. Presence of a strong palmar grasp reflex
B. Persistence of the Moro reflex beyond six months
C. Absence of the Babinski sign
D. Symmetric tonic neck reflex present at birth
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The Moro reflex normally disappears by four to six months of age; persistence beyond six months suggests
central nervous system dysfunction and warrants neurologic evaluation. The palmar grasp typically resolves
by three to four months, so its persistence at six months is also notable, but the question asks which is most
clearly abnormal at this age. The Babinski sign is physiologic in infants up to about age two, and the
symmetric tonic neck reflex is a normal finding in early infancy.
NUR 634 MIDTERM EXAMINATION 2026/2027 UPDATE | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (LATEST VERSION): GRAND CANYON UNIVERSITY 2026/2027 -
2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80%
Page 4 of 40 2026/2027 | NUR 634
