ATI RN Leadership 2023 Proctored
Exam with NGN 70 Questions and
Answers
1. A charge nurse is assigning clients to an RN and an LPN. Which client should
the charge nurse assign to the LPN?
A. A client who requires an initial admission assessment.
B. A client who requires tracheostomy suctioning every 4 hours.
C. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes who needs discharge teaching.
D. A client who is receiving a blood transfusion.
Answer: B
Rationale: LPNs can perform stable, standard procedures like tracheostomy
suctioning . Initial assessments, patient education, and unstable conditions (like
blood transfusions) require an RN's scope of practice and assessment skills.
2. Which task is appropriate for a nurse to delegate to an assistive personnel
(AP)?
A. Evaluating the effectiveness of a client's pain medication.
B. Obtaining a stool sample from a client who has renal failure.
C. Providing discharge teaching about diet to a client with diabetes.
D. Assessing a client for the development of pressure ulcers.
Answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining a stool sample is a non-invasive, routine collection task that
can be delegated to an AP . Evaluation, teaching, and assessment require the
clinical judgment of a licensed nurse.
3. A nurse is triaging clients after a disaster. Which client should be
recommended for treatment first?
A. A client with a simple fracture of the left arm.
B. A client with severe bleeding from a leg wound.
C. A client with a minor abrasion on the forehead.
D. A client who is ambulatory and confused but breathing.
Answer: B
Rationale: Uncontrolled bleeding is life-threatening and requires immediate
,intervention (emergent/class I) . Clients with minor injuries or who are
ambulatory but confused are triaged later. The priority is given to clients with
immediate threats to life.
4. A nurse manager is reviewing guidelines for informed consent with the
nursing staff. Which statement by a staff nurse indicates that the teaching was
effective?
A. "Consent can be given by the nurse providing the care."
B. "Consent can be given by a durable power of attorney."
C. "Consent must be obtained by the client's family member."
D. "Consent is only valid if it is given in writing."
Answer: B
Rationale: Informed consent can be provided by a designated legal
representative, such as a durable power of attorney for healthcare, if the client is
unable to provide it themselves . The provider is responsible for obtaining
consent, not the nurse.
5. A nurse is caring for a 16-year-old client who requires an emergency
appendectomy. The client is accompanied by an adult neighbor, but the parents
cannot be reached. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Have the adult neighbor sign the consent form.
B. Proceed with the surgery as it is a life-threatening emergency.
C. Contact the hospital's legal department for advice.
D. Attempt to notify the client's guardian to obtain consent.
Answer: B
Rationale: For a minor, consent must be obtained from a parent or legal guardian,
except in life-threatening emergencies where immediate action is needed to save
the client's life .
6. A nurse is caring for a client who has a DNR order. A newly hired AP states, "I
will call a code if the client stops breathing." Which is the nurse's best response?
A. "I will call the nurse to come to the room if I cannot detect the client's pulse."
B. "You are correct. We must do everything to save the client."
C. "The DNR order means we do not perform CPR."
D. "I will notify the provider that you cannot care for this client."
Answer: A
,Rationale: The AP should contact the nurse for further assessment whenever a
client's condition does not meet expected findings. The client who has a DNR
order in place does not require resuscitation .
7. A nurse is caring for four clients. For which client should the nurse collaborate
with the facility ethics committee?
A. An older adult client who wants to leave against medical advice.
B. A client who refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons.
C. An adolescent client whose parents refuse a blood transfusion for religious
reasons.
D. A client who asks the nurse for information about advance directives.
Answer: C
Rationale: A conflict between a minor's potential need for life-saving treatment
and the parents' religious beliefs creates a complex ethical dilemma that requires
review by an ethics committee .
8. A nurse is planning care for multiple clients. Which client should the nurse
assess first?
A. A client who had a hip replacement 8 hours ago with an oxygen saturation of
88% on room air.
B. A client who is 2 days post-operative and is requesting pain medication.
C. A client who needs assistance with ambulation to the bathroom.
D. A client who is ready for discharge teaching.
Answer: A
Rationale: An SpO2 of 88% indicates hypoxemia requiring immediate assessment
and oxygen therapy . This is a priority over pain management, ambulation, and
discharge planning.
9. An RN is supervising a new graduate nurse. Which action by the new graduate
requires the RN to intervene?
A. Administering an IM injection after verifying the client's identity with two
identifiers.
B. Documenting a client's vital signs accurately in the electronic medical record.
C. Administering an IM injection without verifying the client's identity.
D. Wearing a sterile gown and gloves for a sterile procedure.
Answer: C
, Rationale: Client identification requires two identifiers before any medication
administration. Skipping this step is a safety violation requiring immediate
intervention and teaching .
10. A home health nurse finds piles of newspapers in the hallway of a client's
home. The client agrees to move the newspapers into the living room. Which
conflict resolution strategy has the nurse used?
A. Competing.
B. Smoothing.
C. Avoiding.
D. Collaborating.
Answer: D
Rationale: Collaborating involves working with the client to find a mutually
acceptable solution . The nurse addressed the safety concern, and the client
agreed to a compromise.
11. A nurse manager is implementing a CAUTI prevention bundle. Which
intervention is evidence-based?
A. Irrigating the catheter daily with sterile water.
B. Removing indwelling catheters as soon as they are no longer indicated.
C. Changing the catheter bag every 24 hours.
D. Using sterile technique for all catheter insertions.
Answer: B
Rationale: The most effective CAUTI prevention is early removal of unnecessary
catheters . Routine daily irrigation and changing the bag more frequently than
indicated are not standard recommendations.
12. A nurse suspects a colleague is impaired while on duty. What action should
the nurse take?
A. Confront the colleague directly and offer to help.
B. Ignore the behavior to avoid conflict.
C. Report the suspicion to the nurse manager immediately.
D. Wait and see if the behavior improves on its own.
Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse has a legal and ethical duty to report suspected impairment
Exam with NGN 70 Questions and
Answers
1. A charge nurse is assigning clients to an RN and an LPN. Which client should
the charge nurse assign to the LPN?
A. A client who requires an initial admission assessment.
B. A client who requires tracheostomy suctioning every 4 hours.
C. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes who needs discharge teaching.
D. A client who is receiving a blood transfusion.
Answer: B
Rationale: LPNs can perform stable, standard procedures like tracheostomy
suctioning . Initial assessments, patient education, and unstable conditions (like
blood transfusions) require an RN's scope of practice and assessment skills.
2. Which task is appropriate for a nurse to delegate to an assistive personnel
(AP)?
A. Evaluating the effectiveness of a client's pain medication.
B. Obtaining a stool sample from a client who has renal failure.
C. Providing discharge teaching about diet to a client with diabetes.
D. Assessing a client for the development of pressure ulcers.
Answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining a stool sample is a non-invasive, routine collection task that
can be delegated to an AP . Evaluation, teaching, and assessment require the
clinical judgment of a licensed nurse.
3. A nurse is triaging clients after a disaster. Which client should be
recommended for treatment first?
A. A client with a simple fracture of the left arm.
B. A client with severe bleeding from a leg wound.
C. A client with a minor abrasion on the forehead.
D. A client who is ambulatory and confused but breathing.
Answer: B
Rationale: Uncontrolled bleeding is life-threatening and requires immediate
,intervention (emergent/class I) . Clients with minor injuries or who are
ambulatory but confused are triaged later. The priority is given to clients with
immediate threats to life.
4. A nurse manager is reviewing guidelines for informed consent with the
nursing staff. Which statement by a staff nurse indicates that the teaching was
effective?
A. "Consent can be given by the nurse providing the care."
B. "Consent can be given by a durable power of attorney."
C. "Consent must be obtained by the client's family member."
D. "Consent is only valid if it is given in writing."
Answer: B
Rationale: Informed consent can be provided by a designated legal
representative, such as a durable power of attorney for healthcare, if the client is
unable to provide it themselves . The provider is responsible for obtaining
consent, not the nurse.
5. A nurse is caring for a 16-year-old client who requires an emergency
appendectomy. The client is accompanied by an adult neighbor, but the parents
cannot be reached. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Have the adult neighbor sign the consent form.
B. Proceed with the surgery as it is a life-threatening emergency.
C. Contact the hospital's legal department for advice.
D. Attempt to notify the client's guardian to obtain consent.
Answer: B
Rationale: For a minor, consent must be obtained from a parent or legal guardian,
except in life-threatening emergencies where immediate action is needed to save
the client's life .
6. A nurse is caring for a client who has a DNR order. A newly hired AP states, "I
will call a code if the client stops breathing." Which is the nurse's best response?
A. "I will call the nurse to come to the room if I cannot detect the client's pulse."
B. "You are correct. We must do everything to save the client."
C. "The DNR order means we do not perform CPR."
D. "I will notify the provider that you cannot care for this client."
Answer: A
,Rationale: The AP should contact the nurse for further assessment whenever a
client's condition does not meet expected findings. The client who has a DNR
order in place does not require resuscitation .
7. A nurse is caring for four clients. For which client should the nurse collaborate
with the facility ethics committee?
A. An older adult client who wants to leave against medical advice.
B. A client who refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons.
C. An adolescent client whose parents refuse a blood transfusion for religious
reasons.
D. A client who asks the nurse for information about advance directives.
Answer: C
Rationale: A conflict between a minor's potential need for life-saving treatment
and the parents' religious beliefs creates a complex ethical dilemma that requires
review by an ethics committee .
8. A nurse is planning care for multiple clients. Which client should the nurse
assess first?
A. A client who had a hip replacement 8 hours ago with an oxygen saturation of
88% on room air.
B. A client who is 2 days post-operative and is requesting pain medication.
C. A client who needs assistance with ambulation to the bathroom.
D. A client who is ready for discharge teaching.
Answer: A
Rationale: An SpO2 of 88% indicates hypoxemia requiring immediate assessment
and oxygen therapy . This is a priority over pain management, ambulation, and
discharge planning.
9. An RN is supervising a new graduate nurse. Which action by the new graduate
requires the RN to intervene?
A. Administering an IM injection after verifying the client's identity with two
identifiers.
B. Documenting a client's vital signs accurately in the electronic medical record.
C. Administering an IM injection without verifying the client's identity.
D. Wearing a sterile gown and gloves for a sterile procedure.
Answer: C
, Rationale: Client identification requires two identifiers before any medication
administration. Skipping this step is a safety violation requiring immediate
intervention and teaching .
10. A home health nurse finds piles of newspapers in the hallway of a client's
home. The client agrees to move the newspapers into the living room. Which
conflict resolution strategy has the nurse used?
A. Competing.
B. Smoothing.
C. Avoiding.
D. Collaborating.
Answer: D
Rationale: Collaborating involves working with the client to find a mutually
acceptable solution . The nurse addressed the safety concern, and the client
agreed to a compromise.
11. A nurse manager is implementing a CAUTI prevention bundle. Which
intervention is evidence-based?
A. Irrigating the catheter daily with sterile water.
B. Removing indwelling catheters as soon as they are no longer indicated.
C. Changing the catheter bag every 24 hours.
D. Using sterile technique for all catheter insertions.
Answer: B
Rationale: The most effective CAUTI prevention is early removal of unnecessary
catheters . Routine daily irrigation and changing the bag more frequently than
indicated are not standard recommendations.
12. A nurse suspects a colleague is impaired while on duty. What action should
the nurse take?
A. Confront the colleague directly and offer to help.
B. Ignore the behavior to avoid conflict.
C. Report the suspicion to the nurse manager immediately.
D. Wait and see if the behavior improves on its own.
Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse has a legal and ethical duty to report suspected impairment
