Guide 2025/ 2026 Updated Maternal and Infant Health Lecture
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Subject Area Maternal-Newborn Nursing
Description This exam assesses advanced knowledge in postpartum care and newborn
assessment, covering maternal physiological changes, neonatal adaptation,
breastfeeding management, and evidence-based interventions. It is designed for
graduate-level nursing students or medical residents specializing in obstetrics and
pediatrics.
Expected Grade A+
Total Questions 100
Duration 3 hours
Learning Outcomes 1. Analyze the physiological and psychological adaptations of the postpartum
mother and identify deviations from normal.
2. Evaluate newborn transition to extrauterine life using standardized assessment
tools like the Ballard score and APGAR.
3. Integrate current evidence-based guidelines for breastfeeding support, pain
management, and prevention of postpartum complications.
4. Apply critical thinking to differentiate between benign and pathological
findings in maternal and neonatal assessments.
Accreditation This exam meets the rigorous standards of Ivy League and R1 research
universities, aligned with AACN and ACGME competencies for advanced
practice nursing and medical education.
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,1. A postpartum client who delivered 12 hours ago has a fundus palpated at the
umbilicus, moderate lochia rubra with small clots, and a blood pressure of 110/70
mmHg. The nurse notes that the client has received 1 L of lactated Ringer's solution
during labor and has a urinary output of 30 mL/hr over the past 2 hours. Which
intervention should the nurse prioritize?
A. Administer oxytocin 10 units intramuscularly
B. Increase intravenous fluid rate to 200 mL/hr
C. Perform a straight catheterization to assess for urinary retention
D. Apply a cold pack to the perineum and continue monitoring
Answer: C. Perform a straight catheterization to assess for urinary retention
A fundus at the umbilicus and moderate lochia are normal for 12 hours postpartum.
However, low urine output (30 mL/hr) despite adequate fluid intake suggests possible
urinary retention, which can displace the uterus and cause atony. Catheterization is
indicated to rule out retention. Oxytocin is not warranted without signs of hemorrhage.
Increasing IV fluids may worsen retention. Cold pack is for perineal edema, not the
primary issue.
2. Which of the following findings in a newborn assessed at 24 hours of life would
warrant immediate further evaluation?
A. Respiratory rate of 48 breaths per minute with irregular rhythm
B. Axillary temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F) after skin-to-skin contact
C. Heart rate of 160 bpm during crying, dropping to 110 bpm when asleep
D. Presence of bilateral cephalhematomas without overriding sutures
Answer: D. Presence of bilateral cephalhematomas without overriding sutures
Cephalhematomas are subperiosteal hemorrhages that should not cross suture lines.
Bilateral cephalhematomas may indicate underlying skull fracture or coagulopathy,
requiring further evaluation. A respiratory rate of 48 with irregular rhythm is normal
for a newborn. Temperature of 36.8°C is within normal range. Heart rate variability
(160 to 110 bpm) is normal.
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,3. A postpartum client on the third day after cesarean delivery reports acute onset of
shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and hemoptysis. Vital signs: BP 90/50
mmHg, HR 120 bpm, RR 28/min, SpO2 88% on room air. The nurse suspects which
complication?
A. Amniotic fluid embolism
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Atelectasis
D. Pneumothorax
Answer: B. Pulmonary embolism
The triad of sudden dyspnea, pleuritic pain, and hemoptysis in a postpartum client,
especially post-cesarean, is classic for pulmonary embolism. Amniotic fluid embolism
typically occurs during labor or immediately after delivery, not on day three.
Atelectasis is common but not associated with hemoptysis. Pneumothorax is less likely
without trauma.
4. When assessing a newborn's gestational age using the New Ballard Score, a score
of 30 is obtained. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Initiate kangaroo care and monitor for thermoregulation
B. Prepare for immediate transfer to the neonatal intensive care unit
C. Administer surfactant via endotracheal tube
D. Perform a heel stick to check blood glucose level
Answer: A. Initiate kangaroo care and monitor for thermoregulation
A Ballard score of 30 corresponds to approximately 34 weeks gestation, indicating late
preterm. Late preterm infants are at risk for hypothermia and hypoglycemia but
generally do not require NICU transfer. Kangaroo care promotes thermoregulation.
Surfactant is for respiratory distress syndrome, not universally indicated. Glucose
monitoring is important but not the priority over thermoregulation.
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, 5. A postpartum client with a history of preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate
for seizure prophylaxis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report
immediately?
A. Urine output of 80 mL over the past 4 hours
B. Respiratory rate of 14 breaths per minute
C. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
D. Serum magnesium level of 6.0 mEq/L
Answer: A. Urine output of 80 mL over the past 4 hours
Urine output less than 30 mL/hr (120 mL over 4 hours) indicates oliguria, which can
lead to magnesium toxicity. The client's output of 80 mL over 4 hours (20 mL/hr) is
below the threshold. A respiratory rate of 14 is normal. DTR 2+ is normal. Serum
magnesium of 6.0 mEq/L is within therapeutic range (4-7 mEq/L).
6. A newborn is noted to have a sacral dimple with a tuft of hair. Which diagnostic
test is most appropriate to rule out underlying pathology?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging of the spine
B. Ultrasound of the spinal cord
C. Computed tomography scan of the lumbosacral area
D. X-ray of the spine
Answer: B. Ultrasound of the spinal cord
A sacral dimple with a tuft of hair may indicate spina bifida occulta or tethered cord.
Ultrasound is the preferred initial screening tool in newborns because it can visualize
the spinal cord and is non-invasive, without radiation. MRI provides more detail but is
not first-line. CT and X-ray are less sensitive for soft tissue abnormalities.
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