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NR-565 Week 8 Final Advanced Pharmacology Fundamentals 2026 with screenshots/// with Questions and correct verified answers/ Guaranteed pass /Graded A+

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NR-565 Week 8 Final Advanced Pharmacology Fundamentals 2026 with screenshots/// with Questions and correct verified answers/ Guaranteed pass /Graded A+

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NR-565 Week 8 Final Advanced
Pharmacology Fundamentals 2026 with
screenshots/// with Questions and correct
verified answers/ Guaranteed pass
/Graded A+

,
,
, Comprehensive Topic Test - Latest 2026 Edition
SECTION A: ENDOCRINE PHARMACOLOGY - DIABETES MANAGEMENT
Question 1
A 58-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes has been on metformin 1000mg BID for
6 months with inadequate glycemic control. The provider adds pioglitazone. Which
statement best explains why this combination is appropriate?


A. Pioglitazone increases insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells


B. Pioglitazone decreases hepatic glucose production


C. Pioglitazone improves insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues


D. Pioglitazone targets insulin resistance while metformin reduces hepatic glucose
production


Clinical Rationale: Metformin primarily works by decreasing hepatic glucose
production and improving insulin sensitivity. Pioglitazone (a TZD) acts as an
insulin sensitizer in peripheral tissues like muscle and adipose tissue. The
combination addresses two different aspects of type 2 diabetes pathophysiology -
hepatic glucose overproduction and peripheral insulin resistance. This synergistic
effect makes them an effective combination therapy.


Question 2
A 42-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes asks why they cannot take pioglitazone
to help control their blood glucose. Which response is most accurate?


A. "Pioglitazone may cause severe hypoglycemia in type 1 diabetes"


B. "Pioglitazone is only approved for use in type 2 diabetes"

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