WGU D075: Information Technology
Management Essentials PA Review Pack
2026!!!
1. In the context of 2026 IT strategy, what is the primary purpose of IT-business alignment?
A) Ensuring IT operates independently to innovate freely. Rationale: Incorrect; IT must align with
business goals, not operate independently.
B) Maximizing the IT department's annual budget allocation. Rationale: Incorrect; alignment focuses on
value delivery, not just budget maximization.
C) Ensuring IT investments and services directly support organizational objectives. Rationale: Correct;
this is the core definition of strategic alignment.
D) Replacing business unit leaders with IT executives. Rationale: Incorrect; alignment fosters
collaboration, not replacement of leadership.
ANSWER: C
2. Which framework is most specifically designed for the governance and management of
enterprise IT?
A) ITIL 4 Rationale: Incorrect; ITIL focuses on IT service management, not overall governance.
B) COBIT 2019/2024 Rationale: Correct; COBIT is specifically tailored for IT governance and
management.
C) PMBOK Guide Rationale: Incorrect; PMBOK is a standard for project management.
D) TOGAF Rationale: Incorrect; TOGAF is an enterprise architecture framework.
ANSWER: B
3. In a 2026 Zero Trust architecture model, which principle is paramount?
A) Trust but verify internal network traffic. Rationale: Incorrect; Zero Trust assumes no implicit trust for
any traffic.
B) Never trust, always verify, regardless of network location. Rationale: Correct; this is the foundational
mantra of Zero Trust.
C) Rely heavily on perimeter firewalls for security. Rationale: Incorrect; Zero Trust moves away from
perimeter-based security.
,D) Grant permanent access once a user passes initial authentication. Rationale: Incorrect; access must
be continuously verified and least-privilege based.
ANSWER: B
4. What is the primary focus of the ITIL 4 "Value Stream" concept?
A) Mapping out the physical network cables in a data center. Rationale: Incorrect; value streams map
activities, not physical hardware.
B) Describing the steps an organization takes to create and deliver value to stakeholders. Rationale:
Correct; value streams define how value is co-created and delivered.
C) Calculating the exact financial cost of IT hardware depreciation. Rationale: Incorrect; value streams
focus on service delivery and outcomes, not just depreciation.
D) Managing the HR payroll for IT staff. Rationale: Incorrect; value streams are related to service
management and delivery.
ANSWER: B
5. When managing IT risks in 2026, what does "risk transference" typically involve?
A) Ignoring the risk and hoping it does not occur. Rationale: Incorrect; this is risk acceptance, not
transference.
B) Implementing new software to eliminate the risk entirely. Rationale: Incorrect; elimination is risk
avoidance or mitigation.
C) Shifting the financial impact of a risk to a third party, such as via cyber insurance. Rationale: Correct;
transference shifts the financial burden to another entity.
D) Reducing the likelihood of the risk through employee training. Rationale: Incorrect; this is risk
mitigation.
ANSWER: C
6. Which enterprise architecture framework uses the Architecture Development Method (ADM)?
A) Zachman Framework Rationale: Incorrect; Zachman is an ontology, not a process-driven methodology
like ADM.
B) TOGAF Rationale: Correct; TOGAF is centered around the iterative Architecture Development
Method.
C) Gartner Enterprise Architecture Rationale: Incorrect; Gartner provides advisory, not a specific ADM
framework.
D) FEAF (Federal Enterprise Architecture Framework) Rationale: Incorrect; FEAF is specific to the US
government and does not use ADM.
ANSWER: B
, 7. In Agile project management, what is the primary role of the Product Owner?
A) Managing the daily tasks and solving technical blockers for the team. Rationale: Incorrect; this is the
role of the Scrum Master.
B) Maximizing the value of the product by managing and prioritizing the Product Backlog. Rationale:
Correct; the Product Owner represents the stakeholders and manages backlog value.
C) Ensuring the team follows the organization's HR policies. Rationale: Incorrect; the Product Owner
focuses on product value, not HR compliance.
D) Writing all the code for the software release. Rationale: Incorrect; the Development Team writes the
code.
ANSWER: B
8. What is the main objective of an IT Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
A) To define the internal operational procedures of the IT helpdesk. Rationale: Incorrect; internal
procedures are covered by OLAs or standard operating procedures.
B) To establish a formal, binding commitment between an IT provider and a customer regarding service
metrics. Rationale: Correct; SLAs define expected service levels, metrics, and penalties between provider
and customer.
C) To outline the technical specifications of the servers used. Rationale: Incorrect; technical specs are in
configuration management, not the SLA.
D) To list the salaries of the IT service desk personnel. Rationale: Incorrect; SLAs do not cover internal HR
compensation.
ANSWER: B
9. In the context of 2026 cloud computing, what characterizes a "Cloud-Native" application?
A) An application migrated from an on-premise server to a virtual machine without code changes.
Rationale: Incorrect; this is "lift-and-shift," not cloud-native.
B) An application built specifically to leverage cloud computing frameworks like microservices and
containers. Rationale: Correct; cloud-native apps are designed from the ground up for cloud
environments.
C) An application that runs exclusively on local desktop computers. Rationale: Incorrect; cloud-native
apps run in the cloud.
D) An application that requires manual hardware provisioning for every update. Rationale: Incorrect;
cloud-native relies on automated, dynamic provisioning.
ANSWER: B
10. Which of the following best describes "Shadow IT" in a modern enterprise?
, A) IT systems used exclusively by the cybersecurity team for threat hunting. Rationale: Incorrect;
shadow IT refers to unauthorized systems, not specialized security tools.
B) The practice of backing up data to an offline, physical tape drive. Rationale: Incorrect; this is cold
storage, not shadow IT.
C) Information systems, software, or devices deployed by employees without explicit IT department
approval. Rationale: Correct; shadow IT occurs when business units bypass IT to use unapproved tech.
D) Dark web monitoring tools purchased by the IT procurement team. Rationale: Incorrect; shadow IT is
unauthorized, not officially procured security tools.
ANSWER: C
11. What is the primary purpose of a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) in IT continuity planning?
A) To identify the financial cost of purchasing new servers. Rationale: Incorrect; BIA focuses on business
processes, not hardware procurement costs.
B) To identify critical business functions and the impact of a disruption over time. Rationale: Correct; BIA
determines which processes are critical and their Recovery Time Objectives.
C) To test the speed of the internet connection during a disaster. Rationale: Incorrect; BIA is an
analytical process, not a network speed test.
D) To train employees on how to use a new software application. Rationale: Incorrect; BIA is for
continuity planning, not software training.
ANSWER: B
12. In ITIL 4, what practice is responsible for minimizing the negative impact of unplanned
interruptions by restoring service as quickly as possible?
A) Problem Management Rationale: Incorrect; Problem Management finds the root cause; Incident
Management restores service.
B) Change Enablement Rationale: Incorrect; Change Enablement manages authorized changes to the
environment.
C) Incident Management Rationale: Correct; Incident Management focuses on rapid restoration of
normal service operation.
D) Release Management Rationale: Incorrect; Release Management controls the deployment of new
software versions.
ANSWER: C
13. When evaluating emerging AI technologies in 2026, what is a primary ethical concern for IT
managers?
A) Ensuring AI runs on the oldest available hardware to save money. Rationale: Incorrect; ethical
concerns focus on bias, privacy, and transparency, not hardware age.
Management Essentials PA Review Pack
2026!!!
1. In the context of 2026 IT strategy, what is the primary purpose of IT-business alignment?
A) Ensuring IT operates independently to innovate freely. Rationale: Incorrect; IT must align with
business goals, not operate independently.
B) Maximizing the IT department's annual budget allocation. Rationale: Incorrect; alignment focuses on
value delivery, not just budget maximization.
C) Ensuring IT investments and services directly support organizational objectives. Rationale: Correct;
this is the core definition of strategic alignment.
D) Replacing business unit leaders with IT executives. Rationale: Incorrect; alignment fosters
collaboration, not replacement of leadership.
ANSWER: C
2. Which framework is most specifically designed for the governance and management of
enterprise IT?
A) ITIL 4 Rationale: Incorrect; ITIL focuses on IT service management, not overall governance.
B) COBIT 2019/2024 Rationale: Correct; COBIT is specifically tailored for IT governance and
management.
C) PMBOK Guide Rationale: Incorrect; PMBOK is a standard for project management.
D) TOGAF Rationale: Incorrect; TOGAF is an enterprise architecture framework.
ANSWER: B
3. In a 2026 Zero Trust architecture model, which principle is paramount?
A) Trust but verify internal network traffic. Rationale: Incorrect; Zero Trust assumes no implicit trust for
any traffic.
B) Never trust, always verify, regardless of network location. Rationale: Correct; this is the foundational
mantra of Zero Trust.
C) Rely heavily on perimeter firewalls for security. Rationale: Incorrect; Zero Trust moves away from
perimeter-based security.
,D) Grant permanent access once a user passes initial authentication. Rationale: Incorrect; access must
be continuously verified and least-privilege based.
ANSWER: B
4. What is the primary focus of the ITIL 4 "Value Stream" concept?
A) Mapping out the physical network cables in a data center. Rationale: Incorrect; value streams map
activities, not physical hardware.
B) Describing the steps an organization takes to create and deliver value to stakeholders. Rationale:
Correct; value streams define how value is co-created and delivered.
C) Calculating the exact financial cost of IT hardware depreciation. Rationale: Incorrect; value streams
focus on service delivery and outcomes, not just depreciation.
D) Managing the HR payroll for IT staff. Rationale: Incorrect; value streams are related to service
management and delivery.
ANSWER: B
5. When managing IT risks in 2026, what does "risk transference" typically involve?
A) Ignoring the risk and hoping it does not occur. Rationale: Incorrect; this is risk acceptance, not
transference.
B) Implementing new software to eliminate the risk entirely. Rationale: Incorrect; elimination is risk
avoidance or mitigation.
C) Shifting the financial impact of a risk to a third party, such as via cyber insurance. Rationale: Correct;
transference shifts the financial burden to another entity.
D) Reducing the likelihood of the risk through employee training. Rationale: Incorrect; this is risk
mitigation.
ANSWER: C
6. Which enterprise architecture framework uses the Architecture Development Method (ADM)?
A) Zachman Framework Rationale: Incorrect; Zachman is an ontology, not a process-driven methodology
like ADM.
B) TOGAF Rationale: Correct; TOGAF is centered around the iterative Architecture Development
Method.
C) Gartner Enterprise Architecture Rationale: Incorrect; Gartner provides advisory, not a specific ADM
framework.
D) FEAF (Federal Enterprise Architecture Framework) Rationale: Incorrect; FEAF is specific to the US
government and does not use ADM.
ANSWER: B
, 7. In Agile project management, what is the primary role of the Product Owner?
A) Managing the daily tasks and solving technical blockers for the team. Rationale: Incorrect; this is the
role of the Scrum Master.
B) Maximizing the value of the product by managing and prioritizing the Product Backlog. Rationale:
Correct; the Product Owner represents the stakeholders and manages backlog value.
C) Ensuring the team follows the organization's HR policies. Rationale: Incorrect; the Product Owner
focuses on product value, not HR compliance.
D) Writing all the code for the software release. Rationale: Incorrect; the Development Team writes the
code.
ANSWER: B
8. What is the main objective of an IT Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
A) To define the internal operational procedures of the IT helpdesk. Rationale: Incorrect; internal
procedures are covered by OLAs or standard operating procedures.
B) To establish a formal, binding commitment between an IT provider and a customer regarding service
metrics. Rationale: Correct; SLAs define expected service levels, metrics, and penalties between provider
and customer.
C) To outline the technical specifications of the servers used. Rationale: Incorrect; technical specs are in
configuration management, not the SLA.
D) To list the salaries of the IT service desk personnel. Rationale: Incorrect; SLAs do not cover internal HR
compensation.
ANSWER: B
9. In the context of 2026 cloud computing, what characterizes a "Cloud-Native" application?
A) An application migrated from an on-premise server to a virtual machine without code changes.
Rationale: Incorrect; this is "lift-and-shift," not cloud-native.
B) An application built specifically to leverage cloud computing frameworks like microservices and
containers. Rationale: Correct; cloud-native apps are designed from the ground up for cloud
environments.
C) An application that runs exclusively on local desktop computers. Rationale: Incorrect; cloud-native
apps run in the cloud.
D) An application that requires manual hardware provisioning for every update. Rationale: Incorrect;
cloud-native relies on automated, dynamic provisioning.
ANSWER: B
10. Which of the following best describes "Shadow IT" in a modern enterprise?
, A) IT systems used exclusively by the cybersecurity team for threat hunting. Rationale: Incorrect;
shadow IT refers to unauthorized systems, not specialized security tools.
B) The practice of backing up data to an offline, physical tape drive. Rationale: Incorrect; this is cold
storage, not shadow IT.
C) Information systems, software, or devices deployed by employees without explicit IT department
approval. Rationale: Correct; shadow IT occurs when business units bypass IT to use unapproved tech.
D) Dark web monitoring tools purchased by the IT procurement team. Rationale: Incorrect; shadow IT is
unauthorized, not officially procured security tools.
ANSWER: C
11. What is the primary purpose of a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) in IT continuity planning?
A) To identify the financial cost of purchasing new servers. Rationale: Incorrect; BIA focuses on business
processes, not hardware procurement costs.
B) To identify critical business functions and the impact of a disruption over time. Rationale: Correct; BIA
determines which processes are critical and their Recovery Time Objectives.
C) To test the speed of the internet connection during a disaster. Rationale: Incorrect; BIA is an
analytical process, not a network speed test.
D) To train employees on how to use a new software application. Rationale: Incorrect; BIA is for
continuity planning, not software training.
ANSWER: B
12. In ITIL 4, what practice is responsible for minimizing the negative impact of unplanned
interruptions by restoring service as quickly as possible?
A) Problem Management Rationale: Incorrect; Problem Management finds the root cause; Incident
Management restores service.
B) Change Enablement Rationale: Incorrect; Change Enablement manages authorized changes to the
environment.
C) Incident Management Rationale: Correct; Incident Management focuses on rapid restoration of
normal service operation.
D) Release Management Rationale: Incorrect; Release Management controls the deployment of new
software versions.
ANSWER: C
13. When evaluating emerging AI technologies in 2026, what is a primary ethical concern for IT
managers?
A) Ensuring AI runs on the oldest available hardware to save money. Rationale: Incorrect; ethical
concerns focus on bias, privacy, and transparency, not hardware age.
