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NUR 1020 Final Exam 4 OB | Questions and
Answers | 2026 Updated | 100% Correct -
Broward College.
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM NURSING (Questions 1–14)
Q1: A client reports her last menstrual period (LMP) began on January 10, 2026.
Using Naegele's rule, what is her estimated due date (EDD)?
A. September 17, 2026
B. October 17, 2026 [CORRECT]
C. November 17, 2026
D. August 17, 2026
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because Naegele's rule calculates EDD by subtracting 3
months from the first day of the LMP and adding 7 days. January 10 minus 3
months equals October 10; adding 7 days equals October 17, 2026. Per standard
obstetric nursing practice, this is the accepted method for estimating gestational
age.
Q2: A client is pregnant for the third time. She delivered one baby at 39 weeks,
had one spontaneous abortion at 8 weeks, and is currently pregnant. What is her
GTPAL classification?
A. G3, T1, P0, A1, L1 [CORRECT]
B. G3, T2, P0, A1, L1
C. G2, T1, P0, A1, L1
D. G3, T1, P1, A1, L1
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because GTPAL counts gravida as total pregnancies (3), term
deliveries at ≥37 weeks (1), preterm deliveries between 20–36.6 weeks (0),
abortions <20 weeks (1), and living children (1). Per ACOG guidelines, the
spontaneous abortion at 8 weeks is recorded under "A," not "P."
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Q3: During a prenatal visit at 28 weeks gestation, the nurse measures the client's
fundal height at 26 cm. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Schedule an immediate ultrasound for fetal growth restriction
B. Document the finding as normal since it is within 2 cm of gestational age
[CORRECT]
C. Notify the provider of suspected oligohydramnios
D. Recommend increased caloric intake immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because fundal height in centimeters corresponds to
gestational age ±2 cm. At 28 weeks, a measurement of 26 cm falls within the
normal range of 26–30 cm. Standard obstetric nursing practice requires
documentation of normal findings without unnecessary intervention.
Q4: A pregnant client at 32 weeks reports she has felt only 6 fetal movements in
the past 2 hours. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
A. Reassure the client that decreased movement is normal in the third trimester
B. Instruct the client to drink a cold beverage and perform kick counts for another
hour
C. Notify the provider immediately and prepare for a non-stress test [CORRECT]
D. Schedule a routine follow-up appointment in one week
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because fetal kick counts require at least 10 movements in 2
hours. Fewer than 10 movements warrants immediate provider notification and
further fetal assessment, typically a non-stress test. Per ACOG guidelines,
decreased fetal movement is a significant indicator of potential fetal compromise
requiring prompt evaluation.
Q5: A pregnant client with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 32 asks the nurse how much
weight she should gain during pregnancy. What is the nurse's best response?
A. "You should gain 25 to 35 pounds."
B. "You should gain 15 to 25 pounds."
C. "You should gain 11 to 20 pounds." [CORRECT]
D. "You should gain 28 to 40 pounds."
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Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because clients with an obese pre-pregnancy BMI (≥30) are
recommended to gain 11–20 pounds (5–9 kg) during pregnancy. Per Institute of
Medicine guidelines, this minimizes risks of gestational diabetes, preeclampsia,
and macrosomia while supporting adequate fetal growth.
Q6: A client at 10 weeks gestation asks the nurse which foods she should avoid
during pregnancy. Which food should the nurse identify as highest risk?
A. Pasteurized yogurt
B. Deli meats that are heated until steaming
C. Unpasteurized soft cheese [CORRECT]
D. Cooked salmon
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because unpasteurized soft cheeses carry a high risk of
Listeria monocytogenes infection, which can cause miscarriage, stillbirth, or
severe neonatal infection. Per CDC and ACOG guidelines, pregnant clients must
avoid unpasteurized dairy products, raw/undercooked meats, and high-mercury
fish.
Q7: A client at 24 weeks gestation undergoes a 1-hour 50g glucose challenge test
with a result of 142 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Diagnose gestational diabetes and begin dietary counseling
B. Schedule a 3-hour 100g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) [CORRECT]
C. Repeat the 1-hour glucose challenge test in 2 weeks
D. Reassure the client that this is a normal result
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because a 1-hour 50g glucose challenge result ≥130–140
mg/dL requires follow-up with a 3-hour 100g OGTT for definitive diagnosis of
gestational diabetes. Per ACOG guidelines, the screening threshold triggers
diagnostic testing, not immediate diagnosis or reassurance.
Q8: A client at 36 weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia with severe
features (BP 168/112, platelets 88,000, elevated liver enzymes). What is the priority
management?
A. Begin expectant management with bed rest and antihypertensives
NUR 1020 Final Exam 4 OB | Questions and
Answers | 2026 Updated | 100% Correct -
Broward College.
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM NURSING (Questions 1–14)
Q1: A client reports her last menstrual period (LMP) began on January 10, 2026.
Using Naegele's rule, what is her estimated due date (EDD)?
A. September 17, 2026
B. October 17, 2026 [CORRECT]
C. November 17, 2026
D. August 17, 2026
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because Naegele's rule calculates EDD by subtracting 3
months from the first day of the LMP and adding 7 days. January 10 minus 3
months equals October 10; adding 7 days equals October 17, 2026. Per standard
obstetric nursing practice, this is the accepted method for estimating gestational
age.
Q2: A client is pregnant for the third time. She delivered one baby at 39 weeks,
had one spontaneous abortion at 8 weeks, and is currently pregnant. What is her
GTPAL classification?
A. G3, T1, P0, A1, L1 [CORRECT]
B. G3, T2, P0, A1, L1
C. G2, T1, P0, A1, L1
D. G3, T1, P1, A1, L1
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because GTPAL counts gravida as total pregnancies (3), term
deliveries at ≥37 weeks (1), preterm deliveries between 20–36.6 weeks (0),
abortions <20 weeks (1), and living children (1). Per ACOG guidelines, the
spontaneous abortion at 8 weeks is recorded under "A," not "P."
, 2
Q3: During a prenatal visit at 28 weeks gestation, the nurse measures the client's
fundal height at 26 cm. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Schedule an immediate ultrasound for fetal growth restriction
B. Document the finding as normal since it is within 2 cm of gestational age
[CORRECT]
C. Notify the provider of suspected oligohydramnios
D. Recommend increased caloric intake immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because fundal height in centimeters corresponds to
gestational age ±2 cm. At 28 weeks, a measurement of 26 cm falls within the
normal range of 26–30 cm. Standard obstetric nursing practice requires
documentation of normal findings without unnecessary intervention.
Q4: A pregnant client at 32 weeks reports she has felt only 6 fetal movements in
the past 2 hours. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
A. Reassure the client that decreased movement is normal in the third trimester
B. Instruct the client to drink a cold beverage and perform kick counts for another
hour
C. Notify the provider immediately and prepare for a non-stress test [CORRECT]
D. Schedule a routine follow-up appointment in one week
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because fetal kick counts require at least 10 movements in 2
hours. Fewer than 10 movements warrants immediate provider notification and
further fetal assessment, typically a non-stress test. Per ACOG guidelines,
decreased fetal movement is a significant indicator of potential fetal compromise
requiring prompt evaluation.
Q5: A pregnant client with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 32 asks the nurse how much
weight she should gain during pregnancy. What is the nurse's best response?
A. "You should gain 25 to 35 pounds."
B. "You should gain 15 to 25 pounds."
C. "You should gain 11 to 20 pounds." [CORRECT]
D. "You should gain 28 to 40 pounds."
, 3
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because clients with an obese pre-pregnancy BMI (≥30) are
recommended to gain 11–20 pounds (5–9 kg) during pregnancy. Per Institute of
Medicine guidelines, this minimizes risks of gestational diabetes, preeclampsia,
and macrosomia while supporting adequate fetal growth.
Q6: A client at 10 weeks gestation asks the nurse which foods she should avoid
during pregnancy. Which food should the nurse identify as highest risk?
A. Pasteurized yogurt
B. Deli meats that are heated until steaming
C. Unpasteurized soft cheese [CORRECT]
D. Cooked salmon
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because unpasteurized soft cheeses carry a high risk of
Listeria monocytogenes infection, which can cause miscarriage, stillbirth, or
severe neonatal infection. Per CDC and ACOG guidelines, pregnant clients must
avoid unpasteurized dairy products, raw/undercooked meats, and high-mercury
fish.
Q7: A client at 24 weeks gestation undergoes a 1-hour 50g glucose challenge test
with a result of 142 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Diagnose gestational diabetes and begin dietary counseling
B. Schedule a 3-hour 100g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) [CORRECT]
C. Repeat the 1-hour glucose challenge test in 2 weeks
D. Reassure the client that this is a normal result
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because a 1-hour 50g glucose challenge result ≥130–140
mg/dL requires follow-up with a 3-hour 100g OGTT for definitive diagnosis of
gestational diabetes. Per ACOG guidelines, the screening threshold triggers
diagnostic testing, not immediate diagnosis or reassurance.
Q8: A client at 36 weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia with severe
features (BP 168/112, platelets 88,000, elevated liver enzymes). What is the priority
management?
A. Begin expectant management with bed rest and antihypertensives
