Fall Semester 2026–2027 ATI Comprehensive
Predictor Updated 2026 | 190+ Questions and
Answers | ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor
Certification Exam Prep, Practice Exam,
Comprehensive Study Guide, Test Bank, Medical-
Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Fundamentals of
Nursing, Maternal-Newborn Nursing, Pediatric
Nursing, Mental Health Nursing, Leadership &
Management, Clinical Judgment, Prioritization,
Delegation, NCLEX-RN Readiness, Detailed
Rationales and Complete Revision Material
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative
following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Which of the following
assessment findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
B. Heart rate of 92/min
C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
D. Blood pressure of 110/72 mm Hg
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
Rationale: Following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, maintaining adequate renal
perfusion is critical. A urine output of less than 30 mL/hr is a key indicator of acute
kidney injury, often due to emboli or hypoperfusion. While the other vital signs are
stable, the nurse must report urine output that is trending downward to prevent
irreversible renal damage.
Question 2: A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of
type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is the priority intervention
during the initial education session?
A. Teaching the client how to administer insulin injections
B. Instructing the client on how to count carbohydrates
C. Demonstrating proper foot care techniques
D. Educating the client on the signs of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Educating the client on the signs of hypoglycemia and
hyperglycemia
Rationale: According to Maslow's hierarchy and safety principles, the immediate
priority is to ensure the client can recognize and treat life-threatening alterations in
blood glucose. While insulin administration and diet are important, recognizing the signs
of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia is essential to prevent acute complications like
diabetic ketoacidosis or insulin shock.
Question 3: A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving
furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values indicates an adverse
effect of this medication?
A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
,B. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
C. Chloride 100 mEq/L
D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and
water in the ascending loop of Henle, leading to increased excretion of potassium. A
potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which is a common adverse effect
and can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. The other values are within normal limits.
Question 4: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
B. Check the expiration date of the blood product
C. Assess the client's vital signs
D. Explain the procedure to the client
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
Rationale: According to patient safety protocols, the most critical step to prevent a
transfusion reaction due to human error is verifying the client's identity with two unique
identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth). This must be done before the infusion begins.
Checking vital signs and explaining the procedure are important but secondary to
correct identification.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a client who has a central venous catheter.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent a catheter-
related bloodstream infection?
A. Change the transparent dressing every 12 hours
B. Use sterile technique when handling the catheter hub
C. Flush the catheter with 10 mL of normal saline every shift
D. Apply an antibiotic ointment to the insertion site daily
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Use sterile technique when handling the catheter hub
Rationale: The most effective way to prevent catheter-related bloodstream infections is
to maintain strict sterile technique, including sterile gloves and masks, when accessing
or manipulating the catheter hub. This prevents the introduction of pathogens.
Transparent dressings are typically changed every 7 days or when soiled, not every 12
hours, and antibiotic ointments are not routinely recommended.
Question 6: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will take ibuprofen if I get a headache."
B. "I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables."
C. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
D. "I will check my blood glucose daily."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Using a soft-
bristled toothbrush minimizes trauma to the gums and reduces the risk of bleeding.
,Ibuprofen increases bleeding risk and should be avoided. Green leafy vegetables contain
vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin's effect, so intake should remain consistent, not
increased.
Question 7: A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client who has
emphysema. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Hyperresonance upon percussion of the chest
B. Wheezing upon auscultation
C. Egophony upon auscultation
D. Dullness upon percussion of the chest
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Hyperresonance upon percussion of the chest
Rationale: Emphysema is characterized by hyperinflation of the lungs due to trapped
air. This leads to hyperresonance (a low-pitched, hollow sound) upon percussion.
Wheezing is often associated with asthma, and dullness suggests consolidation (e.g.,
pneumonia) or fluid. Egophony is a bronchophony sign associated with consolidation.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a client who has an NG tube set to low
intermittent suction. Which of the following findings indicates that the tube is
in the correct position?
A. The client's abdomen is firm and distended
B. The pH of the aspirate is 6.0
C. The length of the external tube is 20 cm longer than at insertion
D. The aspirated fluid is bright red
CORRECT ANSWER: B. The pH of the aspirate is 6.0
Rationale: Gastric aspirate typically has a pH between 1 and 5. A pH of 6.0 is
considered within the acceptable range, especially if the client is receiving acid-
suppressing medications, as it confirms gastric placement. A firm, distended abdomen
indicates obstruction or ileus. Tube length changes or red aspirate indicates
displacement or bleeding and requires assessment, not confirmation.
Question 9: A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to an adult
client in the ventrogluteal site. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take?
A. Use a 22-gauge, 1/2-inch needle
B. Position the client supine with toes pointing inward
C. Identify the site by placing the heel of the hand on the greater trochanter
D. Administer the injection in the vastus lateralis for rapid absorption
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Identify the site by placing the heel of the hand on the
greater trochanter
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is identified by placing the heel of the hand over the
greater trochanter and the index finger on the anterior superior iliac spine. The needle
should be long (1.5 inches) to reach the muscle. The client is positioned in a side-lying
or supine position. The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for infants, not rapid
absorption in adults.
, Question 10: A nurse is assessing a client's peripheral IV site. Which of the
following findings should the nurse identify as a complication of infiltration?
A. Erythema along the vein
B. Coolness and edema at the site
C. Pallor and pain radiating up the arm
D. Purulent drainage at the insertion site
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Coolness and edema at the site
Rationale: Infiltration occurs when IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing
localized edema, coolness, and pallor due to decreased perfusion. Erythema and
purulent drainage indicate infection, while pallor and radiating pain indicate nerve
damage or severe vasospasm.
Question 11: A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is starting a low-
sodium diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
A. Canned tomato soup
B. Pickles
C. Fresh chicken breast
D. Soy sauce
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Fresh chicken breast
Rationale: Fresh, unprocessed meats are naturally low in sodium. Canned soups,
pickles, and soy sauce are high in sodium due to preservatives and flavorings. The nurse
should encourage clients to avoid processed and canned foods for a low-sodium diet.
Question 12: A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is
experiencing shortness of breath. The nurse should place the client in which
position to maximize breathing?
A. Supine with legs elevated
B. Fowler's position
C. Prone position
D. Lateral recumbent position
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Fowler's position
Rationale: Fowler's position (semi-sitting) uses gravity to allow maximum lung
expansion and improve ventilation-perfusion matching. This position reduces the work
of breathing in clients with COPD, unlike the supine or prone positions, which restrict
diaphragmatic movement.
Question 13: A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who is
receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for
digoxin toxicity?
A. Calcium 10.0 mg/dL
B. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
D. Sodium 140 mEq/L
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
Rationale: Hypokalemia (potassium < 3.5 mEq/L) increases the risk of digoxin toxicity
because digoxin competes with potassium for binding sites on the sodium-potassium
Predictor Updated 2026 | 190+ Questions and
Answers | ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor
Certification Exam Prep, Practice Exam,
Comprehensive Study Guide, Test Bank, Medical-
Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Fundamentals of
Nursing, Maternal-Newborn Nursing, Pediatric
Nursing, Mental Health Nursing, Leadership &
Management, Clinical Judgment, Prioritization,
Delegation, NCLEX-RN Readiness, Detailed
Rationales and Complete Revision Material
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative
following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Which of the following
assessment findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
B. Heart rate of 92/min
C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
D. Blood pressure of 110/72 mm Hg
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
Rationale: Following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, maintaining adequate renal
perfusion is critical. A urine output of less than 30 mL/hr is a key indicator of acute
kidney injury, often due to emboli or hypoperfusion. While the other vital signs are
stable, the nurse must report urine output that is trending downward to prevent
irreversible renal damage.
Question 2: A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of
type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is the priority intervention
during the initial education session?
A. Teaching the client how to administer insulin injections
B. Instructing the client on how to count carbohydrates
C. Demonstrating proper foot care techniques
D. Educating the client on the signs of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Educating the client on the signs of hypoglycemia and
hyperglycemia
Rationale: According to Maslow's hierarchy and safety principles, the immediate
priority is to ensure the client can recognize and treat life-threatening alterations in
blood glucose. While insulin administration and diet are important, recognizing the signs
of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia is essential to prevent acute complications like
diabetic ketoacidosis or insulin shock.
Question 3: A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving
furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values indicates an adverse
effect of this medication?
A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
,B. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
C. Chloride 100 mEq/L
D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and
water in the ascending loop of Henle, leading to increased excretion of potassium. A
potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which is a common adverse effect
and can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. The other values are within normal limits.
Question 4: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
B. Check the expiration date of the blood product
C. Assess the client's vital signs
D. Explain the procedure to the client
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
Rationale: According to patient safety protocols, the most critical step to prevent a
transfusion reaction due to human error is verifying the client's identity with two unique
identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth). This must be done before the infusion begins.
Checking vital signs and explaining the procedure are important but secondary to
correct identification.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a client who has a central venous catheter.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent a catheter-
related bloodstream infection?
A. Change the transparent dressing every 12 hours
B. Use sterile technique when handling the catheter hub
C. Flush the catheter with 10 mL of normal saline every shift
D. Apply an antibiotic ointment to the insertion site daily
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Use sterile technique when handling the catheter hub
Rationale: The most effective way to prevent catheter-related bloodstream infections is
to maintain strict sterile technique, including sterile gloves and masks, when accessing
or manipulating the catheter hub. This prevents the introduction of pathogens.
Transparent dressings are typically changed every 7 days or when soiled, not every 12
hours, and antibiotic ointments are not routinely recommended.
Question 6: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will take ibuprofen if I get a headache."
B. "I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables."
C. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
D. "I will check my blood glucose daily."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Using a soft-
bristled toothbrush minimizes trauma to the gums and reduces the risk of bleeding.
,Ibuprofen increases bleeding risk and should be avoided. Green leafy vegetables contain
vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin's effect, so intake should remain consistent, not
increased.
Question 7: A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client who has
emphysema. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Hyperresonance upon percussion of the chest
B. Wheezing upon auscultation
C. Egophony upon auscultation
D. Dullness upon percussion of the chest
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Hyperresonance upon percussion of the chest
Rationale: Emphysema is characterized by hyperinflation of the lungs due to trapped
air. This leads to hyperresonance (a low-pitched, hollow sound) upon percussion.
Wheezing is often associated with asthma, and dullness suggests consolidation (e.g.,
pneumonia) or fluid. Egophony is a bronchophony sign associated with consolidation.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a client who has an NG tube set to low
intermittent suction. Which of the following findings indicates that the tube is
in the correct position?
A. The client's abdomen is firm and distended
B. The pH of the aspirate is 6.0
C. The length of the external tube is 20 cm longer than at insertion
D. The aspirated fluid is bright red
CORRECT ANSWER: B. The pH of the aspirate is 6.0
Rationale: Gastric aspirate typically has a pH between 1 and 5. A pH of 6.0 is
considered within the acceptable range, especially if the client is receiving acid-
suppressing medications, as it confirms gastric placement. A firm, distended abdomen
indicates obstruction or ileus. Tube length changes or red aspirate indicates
displacement or bleeding and requires assessment, not confirmation.
Question 9: A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to an adult
client in the ventrogluteal site. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take?
A. Use a 22-gauge, 1/2-inch needle
B. Position the client supine with toes pointing inward
C. Identify the site by placing the heel of the hand on the greater trochanter
D. Administer the injection in the vastus lateralis for rapid absorption
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Identify the site by placing the heel of the hand on the
greater trochanter
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is identified by placing the heel of the hand over the
greater trochanter and the index finger on the anterior superior iliac spine. The needle
should be long (1.5 inches) to reach the muscle. The client is positioned in a side-lying
or supine position. The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for infants, not rapid
absorption in adults.
, Question 10: A nurse is assessing a client's peripheral IV site. Which of the
following findings should the nurse identify as a complication of infiltration?
A. Erythema along the vein
B. Coolness and edema at the site
C. Pallor and pain radiating up the arm
D. Purulent drainage at the insertion site
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Coolness and edema at the site
Rationale: Infiltration occurs when IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing
localized edema, coolness, and pallor due to decreased perfusion. Erythema and
purulent drainage indicate infection, while pallor and radiating pain indicate nerve
damage or severe vasospasm.
Question 11: A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is starting a low-
sodium diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
A. Canned tomato soup
B. Pickles
C. Fresh chicken breast
D. Soy sauce
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Fresh chicken breast
Rationale: Fresh, unprocessed meats are naturally low in sodium. Canned soups,
pickles, and soy sauce are high in sodium due to preservatives and flavorings. The nurse
should encourage clients to avoid processed and canned foods for a low-sodium diet.
Question 12: A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is
experiencing shortness of breath. The nurse should place the client in which
position to maximize breathing?
A. Supine with legs elevated
B. Fowler's position
C. Prone position
D. Lateral recumbent position
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Fowler's position
Rationale: Fowler's position (semi-sitting) uses gravity to allow maximum lung
expansion and improve ventilation-perfusion matching. This position reduces the work
of breathing in clients with COPD, unlike the supine or prone positions, which restrict
diaphragmatic movement.
Question 13: A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who is
receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for
digoxin toxicity?
A. Calcium 10.0 mg/dL
B. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
D. Sodium 140 mEq/L
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
Rationale: Hypokalemia (potassium < 3.5 mEq/L) increases the risk of digoxin toxicity
because digoxin competes with potassium for binding sites on the sodium-potassium
