ATI ADULT MEDICAL-SURGICAL CARDIOVASCULAR
DISORDERS EXAM 300 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE LATEST 2026 ALREADY
GRADED A+
This set of 300 ATI-style multiple-choice questions provides a comprehensive
review of adult medical-surgical cardiovascular nursing. It covers coronary
artery disease, heart failure, valvular disorders, pericardial conditions,
vascular diseases (PAD, DVT, PE, aneurysms), and cardiac dysrhythmias.
Pharmacology is emphasized across anticoagulants, antiplatelets, diuretics,
beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, ARBs, calcium channel blockers, nitrates,
statins, antiarrhythmics, and inotropes. Questions address diagnostics,
hemodynamic monitoring, emergency interventions, prioritization, patient
education, and adverse effect management. Each question includes four
options, a correct answer, and a detailed rationale explaining the clinical
reasoning. No questions are repeated, ensuring a thorough, non-duplicative
review for ATI examination preparation.
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute pericarditis. Which of the following
findings should the nurse expect?
A. Bradycardia with regular rhythm
B. A friction rub auscultated at the left lower sternal border
C. Absent peripheral pulses bilaterally
D. Jugular venous distention that decreases with inspiration
Answer: B
Rationale: A pericardial friction rub is a classic sign of acute pericarditis, caused
by inflamed pericardial layers rubbing together. It is best heard at the left lower
sternal border with the client leaning forward. Bradycardia is not typical;
tachycardia often occurs. Jugular venous distention with decreased inspiration
(Kussmaul's sign) is associated with constrictive pericarditis, not acute pericarditis.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has pulmonary edema.
Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
A. Oxygen saturation 92% on 2 L nasal cannula
B. Pink, frothy sputum
C. Blood pressure 138/86 mm Hg
D. Heart rate 88/min
,Answer: B
Rationale: Pink, frothy sputum indicates severe pulmonary edema with alveolar
hemorrhage and fluid leakage, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring
immediate intervention such as high-flow oxygen, diuretics, and possibly
mechanical ventilation. An SpO2 of 92% is below normal but not the most critical
sign in this context. The blood pressure and heart rate are within acceptable ranges.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which
of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client may be
experiencing digoxin toxicity?
A. Heart rate 62/min and regular
B. Serum potassium 3.8 mEq/L
C. Anorexia and nausea
D. Blood pressure 118/72 mm Hg
Answer: C
Rationale: Gastrointestinal symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and
abdominal pain are early signs of digoxin toxicity. Other signs include visual
disturbances (yellow-green halos) and cardiac dysrhythmias. A heart rate of 62 is
within normal limits. A serum potassium of 3.8 is normal, but hypokalemia
increases toxicity risk. Blood pressure is normal.
4. A nurse is monitoring a client who has an acute myocardial infarction. Which of
the following cardiac enzymes is most specific for myocardial damage?
A. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB)
B. Troponin I
C. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
D. Myoglobin
Answer: B
Rationale: Troponin I and T are the most specific and sensitive markers for
myocardial necrosis. They rise within 3–4 hours and remain elevated for up to 14
days. CK-MB is also used but is less specific and returns to normal sooner. LDH is
outdated. Myoglobin is early but non-specific.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery
disease. Which of the following should the nurse include?
A. Family history of heart disease
B. Age over 65 years
C. Cigarette smoking
D. Male gender
Answer: C
,Rationale: Cigarette smoking is a modifiable risk factor. Family history, age, and
gender are non-modifiable risk factors. Other modifiable factors include
hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes, obesity, and sedentary lifestyle.
6. A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which of the following
findings should the nurse expect?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Peripheral edema
C. Crackles in the lung bases
D. Hepatomegaly
Answer: C
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion due to increased
left ventricular pressure backing up into the lungs. Crackles, dyspnea, and
orthopnea are hallmark signs. Jugular venous distention, peripheral edema, and
hepatomegaly are signs of right-sided heart failure.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has an implanted pacemaker. Which of the
following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
A. Avoid using microwave ovens
B. Keep the cell phone on the same side as the pacemaker
C. Avoid magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans
D. Limit arm movement on the pacemaker side for 6 months
Answer: C
Rationale: MRI scans are contraindicated because the magnetic field can interfere
with pacemaker function. Microwave ovens are safe if functioning properly. Cell
phones should be kept on the opposite side. Arm movement on the pacemaker side
should be limited for 4–6 weeks, not 6 months.
8. A nurse is assessing a client with aortic stenosis. Which of the following
findings is characteristic of this condition?
A. Bounding peripheral pulses
B. Systolic ejection murmur heard at the right upper sternal border
C. Diastolic murmur at the apex
D. Widened pulse pressure
Answer: B
Rationale: Aortic stenosis produces a harsh systolic ejection murmur best heard at
the right upper sternal border, often radiating to the carotid arteries. Bounding
pulses and widened pulse pressure are seen in aortic regurgitation. A diastolic
murmur at the apex is associated with mitral stenosis.
, 9. A nurse is administering intravenous furosemide to a client with heart failure.
Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss in the urine,
leading to hypokalemia. Other adverse effects include hypovolemia, hyponatremia,
and ototoxicity. Hyperkalemia is associated with potassium-sparing diuretics.
10. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours post-cardiac catheterization via the
femoral artery. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
B. Pulse rate 78/min
C. Moderate hematoma at the insertion site
D. Urine output 60 mL in the last hour
Answer: C
Rationale: A moderate or expanding hematoma at the femoral insertion site
indicates possible bleeding or inadequate hemostasis, requiring immediate pressure
application and provider notification. Blood pressure, heart rate, and urine output
are within acceptable ranges.
11. A nurse is teaching a client about lifestyle changes to manage hypertension.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further
teaching?
A. I will limit my sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg per day
B. I will exercise for 30 minutes most days of the week
C. I will stop drinking alcohol completely
D. I will maintain a body mass index below 25
Answer: C
Rationale: Moderate alcohol consumption (up to one drink per day for women, two
for men) is acceptable, but complete abstinence is not required unless otherwise
indicated. Sodium restriction, regular exercise, and weight control are appropriate
recommendations.
12. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Which of the following findings should the nurse report immediately?
A. Unilateral calf swelling and warmth
B. Bilateral ankle edema
DISORDERS EXAM 300 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE LATEST 2026 ALREADY
GRADED A+
This set of 300 ATI-style multiple-choice questions provides a comprehensive
review of adult medical-surgical cardiovascular nursing. It covers coronary
artery disease, heart failure, valvular disorders, pericardial conditions,
vascular diseases (PAD, DVT, PE, aneurysms), and cardiac dysrhythmias.
Pharmacology is emphasized across anticoagulants, antiplatelets, diuretics,
beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, ARBs, calcium channel blockers, nitrates,
statins, antiarrhythmics, and inotropes. Questions address diagnostics,
hemodynamic monitoring, emergency interventions, prioritization, patient
education, and adverse effect management. Each question includes four
options, a correct answer, and a detailed rationale explaining the clinical
reasoning. No questions are repeated, ensuring a thorough, non-duplicative
review for ATI examination preparation.
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute pericarditis. Which of the following
findings should the nurse expect?
A. Bradycardia with regular rhythm
B. A friction rub auscultated at the left lower sternal border
C. Absent peripheral pulses bilaterally
D. Jugular venous distention that decreases with inspiration
Answer: B
Rationale: A pericardial friction rub is a classic sign of acute pericarditis, caused
by inflamed pericardial layers rubbing together. It is best heard at the left lower
sternal border with the client leaning forward. Bradycardia is not typical;
tachycardia often occurs. Jugular venous distention with decreased inspiration
(Kussmaul's sign) is associated with constrictive pericarditis, not acute pericarditis.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has pulmonary edema.
Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
A. Oxygen saturation 92% on 2 L nasal cannula
B. Pink, frothy sputum
C. Blood pressure 138/86 mm Hg
D. Heart rate 88/min
,Answer: B
Rationale: Pink, frothy sputum indicates severe pulmonary edema with alveolar
hemorrhage and fluid leakage, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring
immediate intervention such as high-flow oxygen, diuretics, and possibly
mechanical ventilation. An SpO2 of 92% is below normal but not the most critical
sign in this context. The blood pressure and heart rate are within acceptable ranges.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which
of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client may be
experiencing digoxin toxicity?
A. Heart rate 62/min and regular
B. Serum potassium 3.8 mEq/L
C. Anorexia and nausea
D. Blood pressure 118/72 mm Hg
Answer: C
Rationale: Gastrointestinal symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and
abdominal pain are early signs of digoxin toxicity. Other signs include visual
disturbances (yellow-green halos) and cardiac dysrhythmias. A heart rate of 62 is
within normal limits. A serum potassium of 3.8 is normal, but hypokalemia
increases toxicity risk. Blood pressure is normal.
4. A nurse is monitoring a client who has an acute myocardial infarction. Which of
the following cardiac enzymes is most specific for myocardial damage?
A. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB)
B. Troponin I
C. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
D. Myoglobin
Answer: B
Rationale: Troponin I and T are the most specific and sensitive markers for
myocardial necrosis. They rise within 3–4 hours and remain elevated for up to 14
days. CK-MB is also used but is less specific and returns to normal sooner. LDH is
outdated. Myoglobin is early but non-specific.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery
disease. Which of the following should the nurse include?
A. Family history of heart disease
B. Age over 65 years
C. Cigarette smoking
D. Male gender
Answer: C
,Rationale: Cigarette smoking is a modifiable risk factor. Family history, age, and
gender are non-modifiable risk factors. Other modifiable factors include
hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes, obesity, and sedentary lifestyle.
6. A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which of the following
findings should the nurse expect?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Peripheral edema
C. Crackles in the lung bases
D. Hepatomegaly
Answer: C
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion due to increased
left ventricular pressure backing up into the lungs. Crackles, dyspnea, and
orthopnea are hallmark signs. Jugular venous distention, peripheral edema, and
hepatomegaly are signs of right-sided heart failure.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has an implanted pacemaker. Which of the
following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
A. Avoid using microwave ovens
B. Keep the cell phone on the same side as the pacemaker
C. Avoid magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans
D. Limit arm movement on the pacemaker side for 6 months
Answer: C
Rationale: MRI scans are contraindicated because the magnetic field can interfere
with pacemaker function. Microwave ovens are safe if functioning properly. Cell
phones should be kept on the opposite side. Arm movement on the pacemaker side
should be limited for 4–6 weeks, not 6 months.
8. A nurse is assessing a client with aortic stenosis. Which of the following
findings is characteristic of this condition?
A. Bounding peripheral pulses
B. Systolic ejection murmur heard at the right upper sternal border
C. Diastolic murmur at the apex
D. Widened pulse pressure
Answer: B
Rationale: Aortic stenosis produces a harsh systolic ejection murmur best heard at
the right upper sternal border, often radiating to the carotid arteries. Bounding
pulses and widened pulse pressure are seen in aortic regurgitation. A diastolic
murmur at the apex is associated with mitral stenosis.
, 9. A nurse is administering intravenous furosemide to a client with heart failure.
Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss in the urine,
leading to hypokalemia. Other adverse effects include hypovolemia, hyponatremia,
and ototoxicity. Hyperkalemia is associated with potassium-sparing diuretics.
10. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours post-cardiac catheterization via the
femoral artery. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
B. Pulse rate 78/min
C. Moderate hematoma at the insertion site
D. Urine output 60 mL in the last hour
Answer: C
Rationale: A moderate or expanding hematoma at the femoral insertion site
indicates possible bleeding or inadequate hemostasis, requiring immediate pressure
application and provider notification. Blood pressure, heart rate, and urine output
are within acceptable ranges.
11. A nurse is teaching a client about lifestyle changes to manage hypertension.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further
teaching?
A. I will limit my sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg per day
B. I will exercise for 30 minutes most days of the week
C. I will stop drinking alcohol completely
D. I will maintain a body mass index below 25
Answer: C
Rationale: Moderate alcohol consumption (up to one drink per day for women, two
for men) is acceptable, but complete abstinence is not required unless otherwise
indicated. Sodium restriction, regular exercise, and weight control are appropriate
recommendations.
12. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Which of the following findings should the nurse report immediately?
A. Unilateral calf swelling and warmth
B. Bilateral ankle edema
