NEWEST 2026/ 2027 PACKAGE DEAL| DIFFERENT
VERSIONS WITH COMPLETE 1000 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A | CCRN
EXAM PREP (BRAND NEW!!)
1. A patient with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) has
a pulmonary artery catheter. Cardiac index (CI) is 1.8 L/min/m²,
systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is 1,800 dynes·sec/cm⁵, and
pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is 28 mm Hg. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A. Nitroprusside
B. Dobutamine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Furosemide alone
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,Answer: B
Rationale: Low CI + high PAWP + high SVR = cardiogenic shock
with increased afterload. Dobutamine increases contractility and
CI while causing mild vasodilation. Nitroprusside reduces
afterload but does not improve contractility. Norepinephrine
would worsen afterload. Furosemide treats congestion but not
low CI.
2. A patient post-cardiac arrest has a targeted temperature
management (TTM) protocol initiated. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Core temperature 33.5°C
B. Heart rate 50 bpm
C. Shivering noted on continuous EEG
D. Serum potassium 3.8 mEq/L
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,Answer: C
Rationale: Shivering increases metabolic demand and
counteracts neuroprotection. Treat with sedation, neuromuscular
blockade, or buspirone/magnesium. Mild bradycardia is
expected. Temperature 33.5°C is within target (32–36°C).
Potassium is normal.
3. A patient with an anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction
(STEMI) develops new-onset hypotension, jugular venous
distension, and clear lung fields. The CCRN suspects which
complication?
A. Acute mitral regurgitation
B. Right ventricular infarction
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Ventricular septal rupture
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, Answer: B
Rationale: Right ventricular (RV) infarction presents with
hypotension, JVD, clear lungs (RV cannot fill LV). Treat with fluids,
avoid nitrates and diuretics. Acute MR has crackles. Tamponade
has pulsus paradoxus. VSD has harsh holosystolic murmur.
4. A patient on intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) counterpulsation
has a waveform showing inflation at the dicrotic notch and
deflation just before the next QRS complex. The CCRN interprets
this as:
A. Optimal timing
B. Early inflation
C. Late deflation
D. Early deflation
Answer: A
Rationale: Optimal IABP timing: inflation at dicrotic notch (aortic
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